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A-(B\bigcapC)=(A-B)\bigcup(A-C)
If A-B={xlx\inA and x\notinB}
A-C={xlx\inA and x\notinC}
then (A-B)\bigcup(A-C)={xlx\inA, x\notin(B and C)
Let X=A and Y=(B\bigcapC)
X-Y={xlx\inX and x\notinY}
x\notinY
x\notin(B\bigcapC)
x\notin(B and C)
Therefore, A-(B\bigcapC)=(A-B)\bigcup(A-C).
Is this anywhere close to being right? I want to self study some rigorous math this summer but the hard part is that I don't have anything to check against to see if my answers are correct or not.
If A-B={xlx\inA and x\notinB}
A-C={xlx\inA and x\notinC}
then (A-B)\bigcup(A-C)={xlx\inA, x\notin(B and C)
Let X=A and Y=(B\bigcapC)
X-Y={xlx\inX and x\notinY}
x\notinY
x\notin(B\bigcapC)
x\notin(B and C)
Therefore, A-(B\bigcapC)=(A-B)\bigcup(A-C).
Is this anywhere close to being right? I want to self study some rigorous math this summer but the hard part is that I don't have anything to check against to see if my answers are correct or not.