Is a convex subset of a connected space connected?

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It seems like something that could (should?) be true, but with topology you never know (unless you prove it...).

EDIT: I'll be more exact: let (X,\mathcal T) be a topological space with X a totally ordered set and \mathcal T the order topology. Say X is connected and A \subset X is convex (i.e. \forall a,b \in A: a < b \Rightarrow [a,b] \subset A). Is A connected?
 
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Let X be an ordered set equiped with the order topology. If X is connected, then you can show that

1) Every set that is bounded from above has a least upper bound
2) If x<y, then there is a z such that x<z<y.

Try to prove this.

Then you can prove that all intervals are connected just as you prove this with \mathbb{R}.
 
For future reference:

1) Let A be a subset of X bounded from above but without least upper bound, then define the non-trivial subset B as the set of all upper bounds.
B is closed: take a b \in \overline B, and suppose there is an a \in A with b < a, then ]- \infty, a[ is an open around b that does not intersect B. Contradiction, hence b is an upper bound of A.
B is open: take a b\in B, since b is not the smallest upper bound, there is a \beta \in B with \beta &lt; b, hence b \in ]\beta,+ \infty[ \subset B.
Contradiction.

2) Quite obvious indeed :) otherwise one can construct a separation of X.

By golly you're right. As you probably know, the converse is a theorem in Munkres (section 24), but I hadn't realized it was a characterization. So every connected order topology corresponds to a linear continuum. Nice to know! Thanks :)
 
A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.
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