It is just an open set because it is just a part of open covering.fresh_42 said:How are the ##H_i## defined?
Ok. Now, if you take ##ε = 2(β-α)##, how many ##ε##-intervals around a fixed ##x_0## would you need for coverage? How many if ##ε = \frac{β-α}{2}##, how many for ##ε = \frac{β-α}{3}## or ##ε = \frac{β-α}{n}## with a fixed ##n##? The limit is essentially the union of all points of ##[α,β]## but for a given open coverage, finitely many will be enough.kidsasd987 said:It is just an open set because it is just a part of open covering.
fresh_42 said:Ok. Now, if you take ##ε = 2(β-α)##, how many ##ε##-intervals around a fixed ##x_0## would you need for coverage? How many if ##ε = \frac{β-α}{2}##, how many for ##ε = \frac{β-α}{3}## or ##ε = \frac{β-α}{n}## with a fixed ##n##? The limit is essentially the union of all points of ##[α,β]## but for a given open coverage, finitely many will be enough.
The point is: For any given open coverage of a compact set (in a metric space - although I think Hausdorff is enough) there is a finite sub-coverage. Again: a given coverage!kidsasd987 said:Thanks for your reply.
I wanted to confirm the theorem, "if a set is compact then its open covering will contain a subcovering that consists of finitely many open sets." I believe H is an open covering, since it contains S and consists of open sets. However, because epsilon is converging to 0, it would require infinitely many sets to fully cover the set S, which contradicts to the theorem.
Each open set overlaps as much as epsilon, but it is shrinking to 0. Then would we need finitely many open sets Hi to cover the closed set? Somehow I feel there has to be infinitely many.
Hmm, can I understand this way.fresh_42 said:The point is: For any given open coverage of a compact set (in a metric space - although I think Hausdorff is enough) there is a finite sub-coverage. Again: a given coverage!
If you take ##ε=0## then you simply have ##S= \{x | x \in S\} = \bigcup_{x \in S} \{x\}##. This is no open coverage anymore! But as soon as you chose a ##ε > 0##, how small it ever maybe, then finitely many will be sufficient.
I don't see why you need a ##ε'##, but yes, this is correct. Perhaps you shouldn't say countable because this usually refers to an infinite number of things like the amount of natural numbers, since a finite number of things are always countably many.kidsasd987 said:Hmm, can I understand this way.εεε
no matter how small ε is, we can find ε'< ε. which means ε is bounded below by some ε'. Then we can find an integer n which satisfies 1/n < ε.
Also 1/n'<ε'.
since 1/n is bounded by 1/n' and countable therefore finite number of open sets will be enough?
fresh_42 said:I don't see why you need a ##ε'##, but yes, this is correct. Perhaps you shouldn't say countable because this usually refers to an infinite number of things like the amount of natural numbers, since a finite number of things are always countably many.