Any opinion on whether it might be true or not? Doesn't seem true to me, but that's just an opinion also because I can't think why it would be. You might try to find a counterexample first.
Continuity says as x->a, f(x)->f(a). If there are undefined points arbitrarily close to a, I would say no, it's not continuous. If you say the definition is x->a AND f(x) defined at x, then you could say yes, it is. A 'function' with 'undefined' points is a little ambiguous. In any event, even you decide to call it technically continuous, it's not a very interesting example, is it?