I think the answer is yes.
Here's a derivation which I rather like.
You start from the invariance of light speed:
(ct)^2 - x^2 = invariant.
Now you multiply by m and divide by t, getting
(mc)^2 - (mv)^2 = invariant (since v = x/t).
Now you look at two frames, one of which is the rest frame (v = 0):
(m0 c)^2 = (mc)^2 - (mv)^2.
Now you solve that for m and get relativistic mass:
m = m0 / sqrt(1 - v^2/c^2).
Now, Energy is defined as the integral
E = Integral F dx.
Now, Newton says F = dp/dt, so
E = Integral dp dx/dt.
Now dx/dt = v, so
E = Integral v dp.
Now p = mv, so
p = m0 v / sqrt(...)
Now we solve this for v, getting
v = p / sqrt(m0^2 + (p/c)^2)
So, obviousliy m = sqrt(m0^2 + (p/c)^2)
...and if you do the Integral v(p) dp, you get E = mc^2.
So, what is this based on?
1) Invariant light speed
2) Definition of Energy
3) Newton's Law.