Is Every Continuous Open Mapping Monotonic?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of continuous open mappings in the context of real analysis, specifically referencing a problem from Rudin's text. The original poster is attempting to understand why a continuous open mapping is considered monotonic, using the function f(x) = sin(x) and an open interval as examples.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the function f(x) = sin(x) on an open interval and question the nature of its image. There is a focus on whether the image of an open set under f is open, leading to discussions about the definitions of open and closed sets.

Discussion Status

Multiple interpretations of the properties of the function and its image are being explored. Some participants express confusion regarding the definitions and properties of open and closed sets, while others attempt to clarify these concepts. There is no explicit consensus, but the dialogue is ongoing and participants are engaging with each other's reasoning.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the definitions of open maps and the implications of the codomain on the nature of the images produced by the mappings. The discussion includes references to specific intervals and the properties of their complements, indicating a need for clarity on these foundational concepts.

malicx
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Homework Statement


So I'm going through baby Rudin. Problem 15 in chapter 4 has us trying to prove that every continuous open mapping is monotonic. I'm trying to see how this is the case. So, I'm considering

f(x) = sin(x). Let V = (Pi/3, 7*Pi/12) be an open set. Then, f(V) = (\sqrt{3}/2, (1 + \sqrt{3}/2\sqrt{2})). But, f is not monotonic on this interval so I must have the image must not be open (since sin(x) is certainly continuous). So, what did I miss here?

Open maps take open sets to open sets V -> f(V)

Thanks!
 
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I was mistaken about f(V) before, here is what we have:

x takes values in R, but f(X) = [-1, 1].

So, f(V) = (sqrt[3]/2, 1]. But that is still open in [-1, 1].

so I am still missing something I think...
 
I don't understand what you wrote. f(V) is neither open or closed.
 
╔(σ_σ)╝ said:
I don't understand what you wrote. f(V) is neither open or closed.

The complement of f(V) is [-1, sqrt(3)/2], obviously closed, so f(V) is open
 
malicx said:
The complement of f(V) is [-1, sqrt(3)/2], obviously closed, so f(V) is open
That is not the complement. The complement is [-1, sqrt(3)/2).
 
╔(σ_σ)╝ said:
That is not the complement. The complement is [-1, sqrt(3)/2).
f(V) = (sqrt(3)/2, 1]

f(V)c = {x in [-1, 1] | x not in f(V)}.

sqrt(3)/2 is not in f(V), so it IS in f(V)c. Thus, [-1, sqrt(3)/2].

If that were the complement, then f(V) union f(V)c would not be the entire interval... which is a basic complement law. right?

Call U the universe of discourse. then for any A in U, A union Ac = U
 
The way I understand closed sets is that every point in the set has a neighbourhood lying COMPLETLY in the set. Every neighbourhood of 1 has points outside the set in your example.
 
malicx said:
f(V) = (sqrt(3)/2, 1]

f(V)c = {x in [-1, 1] | x not in f(V)}.

sqrt(3)/2 is not in f(V), so it IS in f(V)c. Thus, [-1, sqrt(3)/2].

If that were the complement, then f(V) union f(V)c would not be the entire interval... which is a basic complement law. right?

Call U the universe of discourse. then for any A in U, A union Ac = U

f(V) complement is = ( - infinity, sqrt(3)/2] union (1, infinity).

If we intersects f(V) with [-1,1] then it becomes closed.
 
╔(σ_σ)╝ said:
The way I understand closed sets is that every point in the set has a neighbourhood lying COMPLETLY in the set. Every neighbourhood of 1 has points outside the set in your example.

1 is the endpoint of the set, there ARE no points greater than 1 in im(f).

EDIT: the DOMAIN is R, the IMAGE is [-1, 1]
 
  • #10
malicx said:
1 is the endpoint of the set, there ARE no points greater than 1 in im(f).

Which means that there is a neighbourhood of 1 that contains points not in im(f).

Okay, I am tired of arguing; perhaps I am wrong. regardless, it's almost 1am and I should probably get some sleep.

Hopefully, someone else can help with your question. :-)
 
  • #11
Btw you may want to consider the map
f(x) = 1/(x^2 +1) and how it takes an open interval (-1,1) to ( 1/2 , 1] which by MY definition is not an open interval in R.
 
  • #12
╔(σ_σ)╝ said:
Btw you may want to consider the map
f(x) = 1/(x^2 +1) and how it takes an open interval (-1,1) to ( 1/2 , 1] which by MY definition is not an open interval in R.

if you are considering the codomain to be (1/2, 1], then since your image is equal to the codomain it is both open AND closed by the very definition of a topology (the null set and the whole set are both open and closed)... but we aren't considering them in R, we are considering only (-1, 1) and (1/2, 1] the latter of which is somehow "different" from R. If you let the codomain be R, of course (1/2, 1] isn't open. I think you may be confused about the definition of an "open map."

Call a function f: X -> Y an open map if for any open set U in X, the image f(U) is open in Y. *Notice, in particular, that you must absolutely define what you want your codomain to be, because it WILL change whether the image f(U) is open or not!

Take a look here, I was having the same confusion as you last week, https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?p=2973748#post2973748

But all of this is neither here nor there. I think I am missing something a little more subtle than what you suggest.
 
Last edited:
  • #13
Yes you are correct. Sorry about the confusion.
 

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