Analysis: continuous function and open sets

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem in topology concerning a continuous function defined on a metric space. The original poster is tasked with demonstrating the existence of open sets that contain two disjoint closed subsets, A and B, based on the properties of a function derived from the distance to these sets.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand the necessity of certain conditions and the implications of the function's properties. Some participants suggest considering the inverse images of specific intervals to identify the required open sets, while others question the openness of these intervals in the context of the codomain.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring different interpretations of the problem, particularly regarding the nature of open sets in the context of the function's codomain. Some guidance has been offered regarding the properties of the intervals in relation to the topology of the space, but a clear consensus on the approach has not been reached.

Contextual Notes

There is a discussion about the definitions of open sets in the context of the codomain [0,1] versus the real numbers, which may affect the interpretation of the problem. The original poster expresses uncertainty about the implications of the function's properties and the necessity of certain conditions.

malicx
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Homework Statement


Let (X, p) be a metric space, and let A and B be nonempty, closed, disjoint subsets of X.
define d(x,A) = inf{p(x, a)|a in A}

h(x) = d(x, A)/[d(x, A) + d(x, B)]
defines a continuous function h: X -> [0,1]. h(x) = 0 iff x is in A, and h(x) = 1 iff x is in B. Infer that there exist open sets U and V of X such that A \subset U and B \subsetV with U \cap V = \emptyset

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I have showed everything except the last part about disjoint open sets. I don't think I can just say that since A and B are disjoint, there is an r>0 such that B_r(A) \cap B_r(B) = \emptyset. I'm actually having a hard time seeing how the iff statements are necessary. Any hints would be helpful.
 
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For your general culture: the function h is called a Urysohn function.

Now for the proof. Consider h^{-1}([0,1/2[) and h^{-1}(]1/2,1]). These are the sets you're looking for...
 
micromass said:
For your general culture: the function h is called a Urysohn function.

Now for the proof. Consider h^{-1}([0,1/2[) and h^{-1}(]1/2,1]). These are the sets you're looking for...

I'm not sure I understand... we know that, given an open set in [0, 1], its inverse image is open in X by continuity. But [0, 1/2) and (1/2, 1] are neither open nor closed. If we say (0, 1/2) and (1/2, 1) then we are saying that h(x) =/= 0, so x is not in A, but we are looking for A \subset U for some U, right?
 
Remember that your codomain is [0,1]. The sets [0,1/2[ and ]1/2,1] are open in [0,1] (they are not open in R of course, but they are in [0,1].

If you don't like that, then you can always consider the sets ]-1,1/2[ and ]1/2,2[ and take R as codomain of h...
 
micromass said:
Remember that your codomain is [0,1]. The sets [0,1/2[ and ]1/2,1] are open in [0,1] (they are not open in R of course, but they are in [0,1].

If you don't like that, then you can always consider the sets ]-1,1/2[ and ]1/2,2[ and take R as codomain of h...

Of course it is! >_<. I am really bad at topology...

Thank you for your help, I'm confident I understand it now (and it is so obvious!)
 

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