Ok. But there was something you said later in the thread that perplexed me. You said:
"BTW, although massless spin 2 can be equivalent to Einstein gravity in spacetimes that can be covered by harmonic coordinates (or similar), I don't think the reverse is true that the existence of a spin 2 field is sufficient to produce Einstein gravity.
Zhang and Hu, A Four Dimensional Generalization of the Quantum Hall Effect
Elvang and Polchinski, The Quantum Hall Effect on R^4
Bekaert et al, How higher-spin gravity surpasses the spin two barrier"
How could that be. You said massless spin 2 in harmonic coordintes can produce Einstein gravity, then you followed it immediately with the conflicting passage " I don't think the reverse is true that the existence of a spin 2 field is sufficient to produce Einstein gravity." But you just mentioned in the first sentence that it can! This has been perflexing me for a week so hope you can explain the context of what mean in your conflicting paragraph. Thanks.