Is Inner Product of C[-1,2] & V Defined?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the definitions and properties of inner products in the context of function spaces, specifically C[-1,2] and V. The original poster questions whether certain defined expressions can be classified as inner products based on their adherence to the required properties.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster presents specific definitions of inner products for two function spaces and provides reasoning for why they may not satisfy the inner product properties. Other participants question the definitions and properties of inner products, seeking clarification on the implications of counterexamples.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring the definitions of inner products and discussing the validity of the original poster's counterexamples. There is an ongoing examination of the properties that must be satisfied for a function to be considered an inner product, with some participants expressing uncertainty about their understanding of these properties.

Contextual Notes

There is a focus on the definitions of inner products and the implications of specific counterexamples. Participants are reflecting on their understanding of the properties required for inner products, particularly in relation to the conditions under which can equal zero.

daniel_i_l
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1) C[-1,2] is a space of all continues functions f: [-1,2] -> C (complex)
Is:
[tex]<f,g> = \int_{-1}^{2}|f(t) + g(t)|dt[/tex]
an inner product of C[-1,2]?
I think that the answer is no because:
[tex]<f+g, h> \neq <f,h> + <g,h>[/tex]
for some f and g. this can happen when all the functions are positive and so:
|f(t) + h(t) + g(t)| doesn't equal |f(t) + h(t)| + |g(t) + h(t)|

2)
V is a space of all real functions with defined double derivatives in the interval
[tex][-\pi, \pi][/tex]
we define:
[tex]<f,g> = f(-\pi)g(-\pi) + \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f''(x)g''(x)dx[/tex]
is <f,g> an inner product of V?
also here i think that the answer is no because <f,f> can equal zero even if all of f isn't 0, this can happen if f(-pi) is zero and the double derivative is 0 everywere (contiues slope).
am i correct?
Thanks.
 
Last edited:
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2) there is nothing in the definition of inner product that means <f,f>=0 if and only if f=0.

Wht is the definition of an inner product? do these satisfy, or not satisfy the definitions?
 
matt grime said:
2) there is nothing in the definition of inner product that means <f,f>=0 if and only if f=0.

Isn't that the 3rd property of the inner product? look here for example:
http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/InnerProduct.html

did i misunderstand something?

and is (1) correct?
Thanks.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Sorry, my mistake - I was thinking of a bilinear pairing, not an inner product.

So, you have the definitions, and the counter examples: what was the question?
 
Last edited:
I just wanted to make sure that my counter examples were correct.
Thanks
 

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