It's occurred to me that my most important assumption has been unstated.
Mathematics is not the same as philosophy. In the former all definitions are well-defined (no pun intended). A vector space is well-defined construct, it doesn't matter if you are doing analysis or topology. But in philosophy, this is not true.
http://www.smbc-comics.com/index.php?db=comics&id=1879#comic" did a humorous take on this.
Now both math and philosophy are applied logic. If you include fuzzy logic and its cousins then you can deal with vagueness in truth as well. But you can't deal with vagueness of definitions. That is not mathematics.
I keep bringing up changing changing axioms and logic systems. Humans are able to have deductions which change the definitions as the discourse changes the context, and this happens in philosophy papers. The concept of "deity" can mean one thing in one section and another in a second section. That would be a disaster in mathematics. Indeed Newton, when doing calculus, was criticized many times for defining h to be non-zero, and then letting h to be zero after division. This type of thing is allowed in philosophy.
Now consider this question: "Is intuitionistic logic better than first-order logic?" I'm taking two logic systems and comparing them. But the quantifier "better" is ill-defined. This is not a mathematics problem. It's philosophy. "Should I use intutionistic logic and not first-order logic for this problem?" is also not a mathematical question. Switching from one logic system to another is not a mathematical process.