A have seen here on forum statements that quantum collapse is interpretation dependent, for example: So I would like to ask for explanation that does not relay on quantum collapse for this phenomena: We have unpolarized beam of light. It goes trough two orthogonally oriented polarizers. Assuming idealized polarizers we detect no light after second polarizer. Then we insert third polarizer oriented at 45 degrees between the first two. Now we observe 1/8 of the intensity of original beam of light. How such experiment is treated in no collapse interpretations?