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Correct, but we don't have non-local(spooky action at a distance) forces/effects/technology/experiments that proves non-locality is a fact, similarly we don't have many-world technology where particles can be put in different worlds. Except, ofcourse in the Bell sense, where one of them must be correct if local hidden variables cannot produce the results.All tests of Bell's inequalities support the results of quantum mechanics and are evidence against local hidden variables (at least local in the Bell sense).

Now, it seems we have only three options,

a.) non-locality

b.) no definite reality

c.) formulation of bell's inequality using local hidden variables is not done correctly.

Noting the fact that ability of QM to produce statistical probabilities is mutually exclusive with bell's inequality, (i.e. correctness of QM does not guarantee correctness of bell's inequality). Which option would you choose?