Is Taylor's Series the Key to Proving Differentiability for sinx/x?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the differentiability of the function f(x) = sin(x)/x for x ≠ 0 and f(0) = 1. Participants are exploring the use of Taylor's series and integral representations to analyze the behavior of the function and its derivatives.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss finding a polynomial approximation for f(x) and the implications for differentiability. Some suggest using Taylor's series for sin(x) and others propose approximating the integral representation of f. Questions about the clarity of these approaches and the nature of singularities are raised.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various participants offering different methods of approximation and questioning the clarity of the concepts involved. There is no explicit consensus, but several productive lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the presence of a removable singularity in the function's definition and discuss the implications of using different representations for analysis. There is also mention of constraints related to the degree of polynomial approximation and the behavior of derivatives.

tomboi03
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Let f(x)= sinx/x if x [tex]\neq[/tex] 0 and f(0)=1
Find a polynomial pN of degree N so that
|f(x)-pN(x)| [tex]\leq[/tex] |x|^(N+1)
for all x.
Argue that f is differentiable, f' is differentiable, f" is differentiale .. (all derivatives exist at all points).

I'm not sure about this one at all. Can you guys help me out?

Thank You
 
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[tex]f(x)=\int_0^1 \cos(x t) dt[/tex]
so approximate cos first and the integral for f with cos approximated will approximate f.
The derivatives clearly exist and
|(D^n)f|<1/n+1
 
i still don't understand this, can you elaborate?

Thank You
 
Since cos(x t) is smooth the integral will be as well.
Since
Cos(x)~1-x^2/2+x^4/24-x^6/720+...
is a family of approximations of cosine (each member being a sum the first n=1,2,3,... terms) we may repace cosine by an approximation in the integral representation of f to see that
f~1-x^2/6+x^4/120-x^6/5040+...
are approximations of f.

You function f at zero has what is called a removable singularity, a ficticious singularity that is caused by the representation, not by actual properties of the function. By representing the function differently (such as using the integral representation I gave) the singularity and any problems it may cause vanish.
 
Did you consider taking the Taylor's series for sin x, around x= 0, and dividing each term by x? That seems to me to be far simpler than using the integral form.
 

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