yes. you used the equivalent assumption (axiom) that if alpha is perpendicular to beta, then the only line y parallel to line alpha, and passing through point A on beta, must also be perpendicular to beta.
I.e. one can indeed prove that any two lines making the same angle with a third line, are parallel to each other. (This is proposition 28, Book 1, of Euclid's Elements.) But the converse, which you are using, that any two parallel lines must make the same angle with a third line they both meet, is not provable without the 5th postulate. (This is proposition 29, Book 1 Euclid.) Of course just because Euclid uses the 5th postulate to prove People. 29 does not prove that it could not be proved without using it, but that is in fact true, if harder to show. For that one has to construct a "non euclidean model" of geometry.
This problem baffled people for ages until it was discovered that there is another geometry, also satisfying all axioms except the 5th, and where the 5th is false. For the simplest rough sort of example, think of "table top geometry" where one can easily find two lines through a common point, and not either of them meeting a third line, simply because the table is not big enough. Of course this seems flawed because the table is not very large, but one can extend such a table so that the two lines still do not meet, by making the extended surface curved like the ruffles on a skirt.
There are many good books on this subject (neutral geometry). Here are some free notes which discuss your question in the first few pages. I.e. uniqueness of perpendiculars does not imply uniqueness of parallels.
https://www.math.ust.hk/~mabfchen/Math4221/Neutral Geometry.pdf