I Is the Fizeau-Type Experiment Valid for Measuring the One-Way Speed of Light?

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The discussion centers on the validity of a Fizeau-type experiment claiming to measure the one-way speed of light, with participants expressing skepticism about its methodology. Concerns are raised regarding the neglect of anisotropic effects, which could lead to erroneous conclusions about the apparatus's behavior in different reference frames. The paper's reliance on Einstein synchronization is critiqued, suggesting that it fails to account for potential desynchronization in other frames. Participants emphasize that while measuring the one-way speed of light is possible, it cannot be done without assumptions. The thread concludes with a decision to close the discussion due to the clarity of the explanations provided.
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A Fizeau-type experiment were they claim to be able to measure the one-way speed of light.
Can't see how in this experiment they claim to be able to measure the one-way speed of light:

https://www.researchgate.net/publication/50908639_To_Re-Consider_the_One-Way_Speed_of_Light_UsingFizeau-Type-Coupled-Slotted-Disks

Can you help me to debunk it?

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They seem to have neglected the fact that an anisotropic one-way speed of light will result in a stress-free twisting of the apparatus. This stress-free twisting happens in ordinary relativity in reference frames where the apparatus is translating. But when using anisotropic one-way speed of light then it will happen also in reference frames where the apparatus is not translating, depending on its orientation with respect to the light speed anisotropy.

The authors should have analyzed their results using Reichenbach’s ##\epsilon## or some other similar framework which explicitly supports an anisotropic one way speed of light. Then they could see that their measured results are independent of the ##\epsilon## anisotropy parameter.

Plus, it is researchgate, so does it really need to be debunked anyway?
 
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You can easily measure the one-way speed of light. What you can't do is measure it in an assumption-free way.

I haven't dug much into their paper (a ten year old paper that hasn't found a publisher is not a great sign) but my skim read reached the same conclusion Dale did. The wheels are effectively clocks and are Einstein synchronised in their rest frame. In any other frame or under any other synchronisation convention the rod connecting them is twisted and they are desynchronised.
 
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Incidentally, Marinov (cited in the paper) is criticised in the Experimental Basis of SR FAQ (linked from a sticky thread in this very forum) for exactly this error. These guys seem to be simply repeating it.
 
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lightarrow said:
Can you help me to debunk it?
We usually do not allow threads just for debunking crackpottery - if we did , there wouldn't be room for anything else.

We have made an exception for this one as the misunderstanding is common and easily explained. However, now that it has attracted reasonably complete and accurate explanations we can close it. As with all thread closures, if you believe that it is premature and have more to say, you can ask any mentor to reopen it for your contribution.
 
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Moderator's note: Spin-off from another thread due to topic change. In the second link referenced, there is a claim about a physical interpretation of frame field. Consider a family of observers whose worldlines fill a region of spacetime. Each of them carries a clock and a set of mutually orthogonal rulers. Each observer points in the (timelike) direction defined by its worldline's tangent at any given event along it. What about the rulers each of them carries ? My interpretation: each...

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