Is the kinetic mixing gauge-invariant for non-Abelian gauge fields?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the gauge invariance of kinetic mixing between non-Abelian gauge fields, specifically examining the expression $$ F_{\mu\nu}^a F^{'a\mu\nu} $$ involving field strength tensors ## F_{\mu\nu}^a## and ## F_{\mu\nu}^{'a}##. It concludes that while the bilinear form ## F_{\mu\nu}^a F^{a\mu\nu}## is gauge-invariant, the kinetic mixing term is not, particularly due to the requirement of differing gauge indices on the tensors. The conversation references relevant literature, including arXiv papers 1604.00044 and 2104.01871, which provide further insights into the topic.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of non-Abelian gauge theory
  • Familiarity with field strength tensors, specifically ##F_{\mu\nu}^a##
  • Knowledge of gauge invariance principles
  • Basic concepts of the adjoint representation in gauge fields
NEXT STEPS
  • Review the paper "Kinetic Mixing of Non-Abelian Gauge Fields" (arXiv:1604.00044) for detailed analysis
  • Study the implications of gauge invariance in non-Abelian theories
  • Examine the differences between Abelian and non-Abelian gauge fields
  • Investigate the role of coupling constants in gauge transformations
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The discussion is beneficial for theoretical physicists, particularly those specializing in gauge theories, quantum field theory, and researchers exploring the implications of kinetic mixing in particle physics.

Ramtin123
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Consider two non-Abelian gauge fields ##A_\mu^a## and ##A_\mu^{'a}## belonging to the same symmetry group. An example could be the SM electroweak isospin fields and another exotic SU(2) hidden sector where ##a=1, \dots 3##.
Is the kinetic mixing of the following form gauge-invariant?
$$ F_{\mu\nu}^a F^{'a\mu\nu} $$
where ## F_{\mu\nu}^a## and ## F_{\mu\nu}^{'a}## denote the corresponding field strength tensors.
What is the difference between this case and a usual non-Abelian kinetic term ## F_{\mu\nu}^a F^{a\mu\nu}##?
 
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You need to have a different "gauge index" on the F' tensor than a. I think... But gauge fields always transform under the fundemantal representation, so I think FF' should be gauge invariant. Here is a paper on it https://arxiv.org/abs/1604.00044

We do have kinetic mixing if we have more than one abelian gauge symmetry.
 
Last edited:
malawi_glenn said:
You need to have a different "gauge index" on the F' tensor than a. I think... But gauge fields always transform under the fundemantal representation, so I think FF' should be gauge invariant. Here is a paper on it https://arxiv.org/abs/1604.00044

We do have kinetic mixing if we have more than one abelian gauge symmetry.
That paper discusses kinetic mixing of an Abelian U(1) gauge field with the electroweak isospin fields as shown in equations (1.1) and (1.3). The Abelian field strength tensor ##X_{\mu\nu}## is gauge invariant. This is not true for non-Abelian field strength tensor ##F^a_{\mu\nu}##. But the bilinear ## F_{\mu\nu}^a F^{a\mu\nu}## is gauge-invariant.
In this paper Arxiv 2104.01871 [hep-ph] , in the introduction, it is claimed that non-Abelian kinetic mixing is not gauge invariant. But the author does not explain why.
  • The gauge indices are contracted ##tr (F_{\mu\nu}^a T^a F^{ 'b\mu\nu} T^b) = \frac{1}{2} F_{\mu\nu}^a F^{ 'a\mu\nu}##
  • I think you mean "gauge fields always transform under the adjoint representation".
 
Ramtin123 said:
gauge fields always transform under the adjoint representation".
Yes I did.

I did some calculations, the coupling constant ##g## is included in the transformation matrices, ##U(x) = \text{exp}(- \text{i} g\theta(x)^a T^a)##.

## \text{Tr} ( F^{\mu \nu} B_ {\mu \nu}) \to \text{Tr} (U F^{\mu \nu} U^\dagger V B_ {\mu \nu} V^\dagger) \neq \text{Tr} ( F^{\mu \nu} B_ {\mu \nu})## because ##U^\dagger V \neq I ## and ##U^\dagger V \neq I ## because of different gauge-couplings.
 
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