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Suppose you have the map $$\pi : \mathbb{R}^{n+1}-\{0\} \longrightarrow \mathbb{P}^n$$.

I need to prove that the map is differentiable.

But this map is a chart of $$\mathbb{P}^n$$ so by definition is differentiable?

MENTOR NOTE: fixed Latex mistakes double $ signs and backslashes needed for math

I need to prove that the map is differentiable.

But this map is a chart of $$\mathbb{P}^n$$ so by definition is differentiable?

MENTOR NOTE: fixed Latex mistakes double $ signs and backslashes needed for math

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