My definition is: a set is countable if (a) there's a bijection from it to the natural numbers (in which case it's countably infinite), or (b) to the set {1,2,...,n} consisting of the first n natural numbers (in which case, it's finite,), or (c) it's empty.
Of the three cases, (c) is trivial.
One idea for (b): suppose |S| = n. Then there's a bijection f from S to {1,2,...n}. There is a least element, q, in f(A) the image of A under f. Define a function g such that g(q) = 1. There is a least element, w, to f(A)\{q}; let g(w) = 2. Define g thus recursively till all of its values are defined. (These least elements exist by the
well-ordering principle.) By construction, g is 1-1. Let the domain of g be its image; then g is also onto. Intuitively it's obvious that image of g is {1,2,...m} for some m less than or equal to n. But how to show this without assuming the conclusion?
For (a), proceed as for (b), again using the well-ordering principle. ... ? (Here the presence of infinity makes a formal proof more important, as intuition is a less sure guide.)
(I see http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/SubsetsOfCountableSets.html uses an easier definition which bypasses the problem. Is this the definition you had in mine, SW VandeCarr?)