Is there a C^infty map that is one to one from R^n to R

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the question of whether there exists a C^infty (smooth) map that is one-to-one from ℝ^n to ℝ. Participants explore various mathematical concepts and theorems related to this question, including properties of continuous maps, invariance of domain, and the implications of compactness and connectedness.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants propose that no such C^infty map can exist, citing invariance of domain which suggests that if the map were onto ℝ, it would imply the existence of an open subset of ℝ^n that is homeomorphic to ℝ.
  • Another participant argues that there cannot be a continuous injection from ℝ^n to ℝ for n > 1, using the properties of compactness and connectedness to support this claim.
  • A different viewpoint mentions a variant of a proof involving continuous bijections between compact and Hausdorff spaces, suggesting that the image of a compact subset under a continuous map cannot be homeomorphic to a smaller space.
  • One participant highlights that any continuous map preserves connectedness, pointing out that the complement of a point in ℝ^2 remains connected while its image in ℝ cannot be connected under any injective map.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally express skepticism about the existence of such a map, with multiple competing views presented regarding the reasoning and implications of various mathematical properties. The discussion remains unresolved, with no consensus reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference several theorems and properties, such as Sard's theorem and the implications of compactness and connectedness, but do not resolve the underlying assumptions or mathematical steps involved in their arguments.

mathsq
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Is there a C^infty map that is one to one from R^n to R?

Thanks.
 
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Some comments; maybe someone else can extend:

I think no, but I have no proof. By invariance of domain, the map cannot be onto, since ℝn is open in itself, and, if it where onto ℝ, you could compose it with the inclusion (an inclusion, actually) into ℝn (any n>1 will do ) , concluding that there is a copy of
ℝ that is open in ℝn, i.e., assume f(ℝn)=ℝ, and then let i be the standard inclusion into ℝn, i.e, i(x)=(x,0,0,...,0). Then i°f is a map whose image is a copy of ℝ, which is open in ℝn.

Or, you can use Sard's theorem (we had a similar problem here a while back): Since every point in ℝn is a critical point of the differentiable map f, the image of ℝn under this map must have measure zero in ℝ.
 
There isn't even a continuous injection from \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R} when n>1. For suppose there were. Let f be the restriction of this map to, say, the closed unit ball. If A is a closed subset of the closed unit ball, then A is compact, so f(A) is compact and therefore closed. Hence f is a closed map and therefore a homeomorphism onto its image. This implies the unit ball in \mathbb{R}^n is homeomorphic to a subset of \mathbb{R}. But this is impossible, since any subset of \mathbb{R} that has at least two points is either disconnected or can be made disconnected by removing a single point, whereas the closed unit ball in \mathbb{R}^n is connected and remains so if any single point is removed.
 
Right. A small variant of Citan Uzuki's proof: use that a continuous bijection between compact and Hausdorff is a homeo., so that the image of any compact subset of Rn, say Snl restricts to a homeo between S^n and the Hausdorff subspace f(Sn) , but then you can use Citan Uzuki's argument, or Borsuk-Ulam that does not allow you to embedd S^n in nothing smaller than Rn+1.
 
Thank you! That makes sense.
 
there are easier variants as well. any continuous map takes connected sets to connected sets. But the complement of a point p of R^2 is connected whereas its image in R is not by any injective map, since it is separated by f(p), if p is chosen semi carefully.
 

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