Is There a Direct Proof for (0,1) ~ [0,1]?

[grossgermany]

Prove (0,1) ~ [0,1]

I can think of an indirect proof:
1st step: make (0,1) ~ N , using a tangent function that is a 1-1 mapping from N to (0,1).
2nd step: since (0,1) is a subset of [0,1], if (0,1) is uncountable, then [0,1] must be uncountable
Problem: But these two steps doesn't necessarily mean (0,1)~[0,1], how can I resolve that? Even better, is there a direct proof? I really can't think of f such that f(0.0000...1)=0

 

[matt grime]

Yes, there is a direct proof. It is trivial. It has even been given on this forum in the last couple of weeks. It is no harder than finding a bijection from {01,2,3,4...} to {1,2,3,4...}.

 

[grossgermany]

do you have a link? I searched and found nothing

 

[EnumaElish]

What exactly is a 1-1 mapping from N to (0,1)?

 

[MrJB]

Try this post: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=183742

 

[HallsofIvy]

First, map the inrrational numbers into themselselves.

Since the rational number are countable, we can order them: r_1, r_2, r_3, \cdot\cot\cot

Now, map r_1 to 0, r_2 to 1, r_n to r_{n-2} for n>1.
(I have absolutely no idea where "cot cot cot" came from!)

 

[ZioX]

It's the cotangent function. You've seemed to have forgotten a 'd' in your code.