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The first Amendment, as we all know, protects against government endorsement or support of a particular religion via the establishment clause. But what of political speach? I'm speaking, of course, of the town of Berkeley endorsing an anti-war protest organization and their message at the expense of a Marine Corps recruiting office. Some of the specific actions of the city council are probably illegal, though unenforceable as I'm sure the Marine Corps won't sue them, but what about the general idea of a government entity explicitly aiding a political action entity? It seems to be pretty straightforwardly against the principles of political freedom on which this country was founded, but how, exactly, is government neutrality toward political entities enforced?
http://www.usatoday.com/news/nation/2008-02-12-berkeley-marines_N.htm
As a side-note, Code Pink looks to me to be on shaky legal ground anyway. They are listed as a 501(c)3 organization, piggybacking on an environmentalist group for funding purposes. But political non-profits are 501(c)4. I don't know how big of a deal that is, though.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Code_Pink
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/501(c )
Thoughts?
http://www.usatoday.com/news/nation/2008-02-12-berkeley-marines_N.htm
As a side-note, Code Pink looks to me to be on shaky legal ground anyway. They are listed as a 501(c)3 organization, piggybacking on an environmentalist group for funding purposes. But political non-profits are 501(c)4. I don't know how big of a deal that is, though.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Code_Pink
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/501(c )
Thoughts?
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