Is There a Way to Compute the Unintegrateable Function e^{-x^2}?

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The discussion revolves around the computation of the integral of e^{-x^2}, which cannot be expressed in terms of elementary functions. Despite this, the integral from negative to positive infinity evaluates to √π, and various methods for its calculation are explored. One suggested approach is to use power series expansion, while another involves double integrals, specifically converting to polar coordinates. The Gaussian integral is highlighted as a key concept, with references to its derivation available in external resources. Understanding the transition to polar coordinates and the justification for combining integrals using Fubini's theorem is emphasized as essential for grasping the solution.
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Consider

\int e^{-x^2} dxif that can't be expressed in terms of elementary functions, how did they compute

\int ^{\infty} _{- \infty} e^{-x^2} dx =\sqrt{\pi}
(I think I have the limits wrong, but I know it has \infty as the upper or lower limit)
 
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rock.freak667 said:
Consider

\int e^{-x^2} dx


if that can't be expressed in terms of elementary functions, how did they compute

\int ^{\infty} _{\infty} e^{-x^2} dx =\sqrt{\pi}
well, one way of doing so is i guess expanding e^{-x^{2}} as a power series, using taylor series. But i also think one can compute it using double integrals. I have just heard about this though, since i have no idea how to deal with double integrals yet!
 
I = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-x^2}dx
I^2 = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-x^2} dx\times \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-y^2}dy

I^2 = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-(x^2+y^2)}dxdy
I^2 = \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-(r^2)}rdrd\theta
I^2 = \pi - \pi e^{-\infty}
 
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FrogPad said:
I = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-x^2}dx
I^2 = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-x^2} dx\times \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-y^2}dy

I^2 = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-(x^2+y^2)}dxdy
I^2 = \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-(r^2)}rdrd\theta
I^2 = \pi - \pi e^{-\infty}

THis looks cute, although i do not understand a damn thing what u did! I mean i haven't yet dealt with double integrals!
 
This is the Gaussian integral. The wikipedia article (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gaussian_integral" ) on this integral goes over the derivation of this integral and does a rigorous job (check out the "careful" proof of the identity).
 
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sutupidmath said:
THis looks cute, although i do not understand a damn thing what u did! I mean i haven't yet dealt with double integrals!

EDIT: Note: Read the article D H posted, and not the gibberish below.

Honestly, I can't believe I remembered how to do it. I've seen it a couple of times in class. To me it is, a trick.

But here's the jist of it. That x^2 looks like a beast, and integrating from -infinity to infinity seems like a problem.

We know that if we multiply two exponentials e^u*e^y we get e^(u+y). So when we multiply the two integrals together and get x^2+y^2 this should be screaming, convert me into polar coordinates.

So we multiply the two integrals together, and convert the x^2+y^2 into r^2.

First though, why is that even possible? Well remember that when you integrate with "numbers" you get a number. What I mean by this is the following.

If we integrate \int_0^1 x dx we get a number right? What about when we integrate \int_0^u x dx? Well the second case returns a function dependent on u.

So in the first case, \int_0^1 x dx, why not just call this a number, how about I. So this makes sense to be able to multiply two numbers together, eg. I\timesI = \int_0^1 x dx \times \int_0^1 x dx [/tex]. Think about why we can &quot;push&quot; them together. <br /> <br /> I think the most interesting part about it, was changing to polar coordinates. The part where we change from sweeping out -infinity to infinity in the x and y direction in rectangular coordinates to sweeping out all values by rotating from 0 to 2pi and extending the &quot;arm&quot; from 0 to infinity.
 
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There are other ways to solve the above as well. You will learn these if you take a course in complex variables.
 
You will also need Fubini's theorem in order to justify that you may in this case convert the product of two integrals into a double integral.
 
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