rcgldr said:
Why can't vvv be the velocity of the point of application of the force?
Because, moving the point of application independent of the motion of the body does not transfer energy.
Nor, without a corresponding movement of the body, does it, along with velocity of the body, establish a time frame for the transfer of momentum.
Both versions of the work-energy theorem fail.
As I have pointed out more than once, you can model the dynamics of a car in terms of an opaque, rigid black box with a particular mass, center of mass and moment of inertia. If you apply an external force at such and such a position relative to that black box, the internal mechanical details of the car become irrelevant to the resulting position, velocity, momentum and angular momentum of the box.
In particular, it will turn out not to matter whether the car is accelerated by a wheel embedded in the road that pushes the car forward or a wheel embedded in the car that pushes the ground backward.
It will also turn out not to matter where the actual contact point is! Any point along the same line of action will do just as well. [To be perfectly clear, when I say it does not matter, I am speaking of not mattering for the position, velocity, momentum or angular momentum of the opaque blob that we call the car]