Jellium Model: Finite Confinement & Coulomb Interactions

Morberticus
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Is the Jellium model only suitable for an electron gas of infinite volume? If I confined a gas to a finite volume using an infinite potential well, is there still a way to cancel out the infinities in the coulomb interactions between electrons?
 
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Sure, it's the basis for the LDA/LSDA. Do you have Parr and Yang's book? It's probably the best for this stuff. (Specifically, Appendix E deals with the uniform electron gas)
 
alxm said:
Sure, it's the basis for the LDA/LSDA. Do you have Parr and Yang's book? It's probably the best for this stuff. (Specifically, Appendix E deals with the uniform electron gas)

Thanks, will give the book a look. I have a set of coulomb integrals <a b|V(r-r')|c d> where a-d are plane-wave orbitals with periodic boundary conditions, and they are all diverging due to the singularity when r = r'. I am trying to figure out how these infinities are normally dealt with.
 
This Coulomb integral shouldn't be a problem ... unless I'm missing something, it will be identical to the Fourier transform of the Coulomb potential. While that integral looks to be problematic at a first-go, the trick of inserting a slowly decaying exp(-u*r) term in the limit u going to zero shows the Fourier transform to be 1/k^2. In your case, k will be some linear combination of the wavevectors of your plane-waves a-d.
 
t!m said:
This Coulomb integral shouldn't be a problem ... unless I'm missing something, it will be identical to the Fourier transform of the Coulomb potential. While that integral looks to be problematic at a first-go, the trick of inserting a slowly decaying exp(-u*r) term in the limit u going to zero shows the Fourier transform to be 1/k^2. In your case, k will be some linear combination of the wavevectors of your plane-waves a-d.

I think what is confusing me is some of the phrases I am finding in books.

I have come across the following hamiltonian a few times.

\hat{H} = \sum\frac{ \hat{p}_i^2}{2m} + \frac{1}{L_d }\sum_{q \neq 0} \left[ \hat{n}_{-q}\hat{n}_{q} - \hat{N}\right]

But it is always qualified by phrases like "This Hamiltonian is well defined within the thermodynamic limit" [Quantum theory of the electron liquid By Gabriele Giuliani, Giovanni Vignale]. Which implies it is not valid for small volumes. My volume will be on the order of 10-1000 nm^3 with only a handful of electrons so not sure if it's valid.
 
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...
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