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Is the kinetic energy of a (not necessarily homogeneous) rigid body in translational motion and rotating about its CM the sum of the kinetic energy if the object was still but rotating plus the kinetic energy if the object was in linear motion but not rotating? This seems highly unintuitive and just like that, I can't spot where the key to the proof (or disproof is).

Yet, my thermo text says that a certain molecule of mass m and momentum p has translational kinetic energy of p²/2m, as if translational and rotational kinetic energy were indeed separable.

So may I know what the gist of this "separation thm" is please?

Yet, my thermo text says that a certain molecule of mass m and momentum p has translational kinetic energy of p²/2m, as if translational and rotational kinetic energy were indeed separable.

So may I know what the gist of this "separation thm" is please?

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