Know Your English: Can "It's" Be Used to Signify Ownership?

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The discussion centers on the correct usage of "it's" versus "its." It is clarified that "it's" is a contraction for "it is" and should not be used to indicate possession, which is denoted by "its" without an apostrophe. Participants emphasize the importance of adhering to grammatical rules. The conversation also touches on the etymology of the term "English" in relation to the spin on balls in games like billiards, with a reference to its origins in French. The consensus is that "English" should be capitalized, particularly when referring to the language or its associated terms. The dialogue reflects a mix of grammatical inquiry and etymological exploration, highlighting the nuances of language usage.
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Okay, quick question.

Can the word "it's" be used to signify ownership?

e.g.

"To argue whether or not secularisation is occurring, or has occurred, in our society today one must first define religion itself, then define secularisation- how influential is it now, compared to that of the past, and finally define it's significance."

Would this be proper usage, or must it be used without an apostrophe despite signifying property or ownage?
 
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The way I learned is that the possessive form of it is "its" without an apostrophe, so that "it's" with an apostrophe is always it is.
 
J77 and d_leet are correct unequivocally.
 
It's a rule! Follow its dictates!
 
For completeness, "english" should be written with a capital letter.
 
brewnog said:
For completeness, "english" should be written with a capital letter.
Even when used for the spin on a tennis ball or ping-pong ball?
 
berkeman said:
Even when used for the spin on a tennis ball or ping-pong ball?


Ooh interesting one. I suspect not, though I don't know the etymology of this use. Anyone?
 
brewnog said:
Ooh interesting one. I suspect not, though I don't know the etymology of this use. Anyone?

I had a look at the OED, doesn't which say much about its origin. It did give a second-hand (or more) apocryphal-sounding story about an English pool player named English coming to the U.S., with english being named after him.

I then found the website of the http://www.etymonline.com/index.php" , which states

English (2) (Look up English at Dictionary.com)
"spin imparted to a ball" (as in billiards), 1860, from Fr. anglé "angled," which is similar to Anglais "English."
 
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  • #10
Excellent! Thanks George, that's a much more rational explanation.

I don't know what the rule would be now regarding capitalisation; if the ambiguity is all in the French language, and your story is the truth, I don't see how you could get away without spelling English with a capital E. But I don't know!
 
  • #11
brewnog said:
For completeness, "english" should be written with a capital letter.
Okay, but which one?

Edit : Nevermind. I see you anticipated the extent of my illiteracy in your subsequent post.
 
  • #12
brewnog said:
Excellent! Thanks George, that's a much more rational explanation.
Agreed. Good one, George.

brewnog said:
if the ambiguity is all in the French language... ...I don't see how you could get away without spelling English with a capital E.
Actually, if it's from the French it would be spelled with a capital 'A'. :-p
 

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