Lagrangian - surface of sphere

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
13 replies · 3K views
rolotomassi
Messages
52
Reaction score
0
I have a free particle moving on the surface of a sphere of fixed radius R. Gravity is ignored and m/2 is left out since its constant.
The lagrangian is [itex]L = R^2 \dot{\theta^2} + R^2 sin^2{\theta} \dot{\phi^2}[/itex]

Using the Euler Lagrange equations I obtain
[itex]sin^2{\theta} \dot{\phi} = A = const \ (1) \\ \ddot{\theta} - sin{\theta}cos{\theta} \dot{\phi^2} = 0 \ (2)[/itex]
and by substituting 1 into 2
[itex]\ddot{\theta} = A^2 cos{\theta}/sin^3{\theta}[/itex]

By integrating w.r.t time and using the fact [itex]dt = d{\theta}/\dot{\theta}[/itex] and that theta and its time derivative are treated as independent coordinates i get
[itex]\dot{\theta} + A^2/ 2 \dot{\theta} sin^2{\theta} \ = c_1[/itex]
integrating w.r.t time again i get. [Using omega instead of theta dot now.]

[itex]\theta - A^2 cot{\theta}/\omega^2 \ = t c_1 + c_2[/itex]

I can't see anything wrong but I am supposed to get this into the form

[itex]\theta(t) = arccos ( \sqrt{1 - A^2/\omega^2} cos(\omega t + \theta_0)[/itex]

and I cant. If anyone can help I would appreciate it a lot. Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You're right it was. What I get now which I am pretty sure is correct is this horrible integral

[itex]\theta = \frac{1}{\omega} \int \sqrt[]{ c_1 - c_2/sin^2{\theta} } \ d \theta[/itex]

Which I also have no idea how to solve :S
 
rolotomassi said:
You're right it was. What I get now which I am pretty sure is correct is this horrible integral

[itex]\theta = \frac{1}{\omega} \int \sqrt[]{ c_1 - c_2/sin^2{\theta} } \ d \theta[/itex]

Which I also have no idea how to solve :S
You cannot have ##\theta## as the integration variable and the result!
 
wow I'm being stupid today.

If i separate the variables I get [itex]\int \frac{1}{ \sqrt[]{(c_1 - c_2/sin^2{\theta} )} }d \theta \ = \ \int dt[/itex]
 
I start again and get [itex]\dot \theta = c_1 \int \frac{u}{(1-u^2)^{3/2}} \frac{dt}{du}du[/itex] But still abit stuck. If I sub in du/dt I keep getting a theta dot term. But I can't just assume u dot is independent of u and take it out the integral either. Brain is really hitting brick wall after brick wall with this
 
Solving the integral IS the question. If i could solve the integral I wouldn't be asking for help on solving the integral.
 
The integral is now [itex]\int d\theta (c_2 + \frac{c_1^2}{u^2 -1})^{-1/2}= \int dt[/itex] As I find it. But i get this simplifying to [itex]\int du \frac{1}{u^2 - a^2}[/itex] for the LHS where a^2 is a combination of the other constants. But this is a logarithm when integrating which doesn't make sense for the answer.
 
[itex]\int 1/(c - 1/2sin^2x)^{1/2} dx[/itex] is what I've got now
 
That was the correct integral bar a constant, which has now been solved. Thanks anyway