MHB Least upper bound - greatest lower bound duality

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In Rudin's theorem 1.11, the discussion centers on the existence of the supremum of the set of lower bounds L for a non-empty, bounded below subset B of an ordered set S with the least upper bound (LUB) property. It is clarified that when B is said to be bounded below, it implies that the lower bounds are elements within S, thus making L a subset of S. This understanding is crucial because the proof relies on the properties of ordered set S to conclude that L has a supremum. The participants emphasize the necessity of defining bounds within the context of S, as no comparisons can be made with elements outside of it. Overall, the discussion reinforces the importance of context in mathematical proofs regarding ordered sets.
OhMyMarkov
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Hello everyone!

There's a point I didn't get in Rudin's theorem 1.11 that says:

Suppose S is an ordered set with the LUB property, and B $\subset$ S, B is not empty and B is bounded below. Let L be the set of lower bounds of B. Then a = sup L exists in S, and a - inf B. In particular inf B exists in S.Now the proof states that L is not empty (which is fine by me) and bounded above (fine by me too), hence "our hypothesis about S implies therefore that L has a supremum in S;"

Who said that L $\subset$ S so we can make this strong conclusion?! (Crying)(Crying)

Thanks!
 
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OhMyMarkov said:
Hello everyone!

There's a point I didn't get in Rudin's theorem 1.11 that says:

Suppose S is an ordered set with the LUB property, and B $\subset$ S, B is not empty and B is bounded below. Let L be the set of lower bounds of B. Then a = sup L exists in S, and a - inf B. In particular inf B exists in S.Now the proof states that L is not empty (which is fine by me) and bounded above (fine by me too), hence "our hypothesis about S implies therefore that L has a supremum in S;"

Who said that L $\subset$ S so we can make this strong conclusion?! (Crying)(Crying)

Thanks!
When we say that $B$ is bounded below, I think its implicit that we mean "B is bounded below in S", that is, in other words, "there is an element in S which is a lower bound to B". For otherwise it would make no sense. We have no idea what is outside S. No order relation is defined which compares elements outside S with elements in S. This is a completely abstract setting. Similarly when we say "Let L be the set of all lower bounds of B", (I think) we mean "Let L be the set of all the lower bounds of B which are in S".
It automatically follows that $L\subseteq S$.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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