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Still, this is better and more rigorous than what I did , but you still do not get an actual value of 0 unless you extend continuously. You can also redefine , e.g., ##f(x)=1/x## so that ##f(0)= +\infty##lightarrow said:Thanks for the link, I'll certainly will watch it. My initial question has been motivated from the fact a physics teacher stated that the Dirac Delta distribution is the only correct way of doing the integral, from - oo to +oo, of:
f(x) = 0, if x is different fro 0
f(x) = +oo if x =0
(and up to here I certainly agree with him)
/because the lebesgue integral of f(x) is zero/.
I replied to him that f(0) = +oo is meaningless (even in the codomain - oo +oo) and it's this the /first/ reason why the lebesgue integral of that f(x) cannot give the right answer.
If I "approximate" f(x) with the functions
f_n(x) = k*n for -1/n < x < 1/n
f_n(x) = 0 else
I get k as integral.
If I approximate f(x) with
g_n(x) = n^2 for -1/n < x < 1/n
g_n(x) = 0 else
I get +oo.
If I use:
h_n(x) = sqrt(n) for -1/n < x < 1/n
h_n(x) = 0 else
I get 0.
So, to me, it's impossibile to do the lebesgue integral of f(x) without precisly specifing what "f(0) = +oo" means. Or, the Lebesgue integral simply cannot be computed.
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lightarrow