SeM
Hi, if I have an interval on the x-axis, defined by the parameter L, can this, interval be transformed to a Dirac delta function instead, on the x-axis?
Thanks!
Thanks!
The discussion revolves around the transformation of an interval on the x-axis, defined by a parameter L, into a Dirac delta function. Participants explore the implications of this transformation in the context of mathematical functions and integrals, raising questions about the nature and representation of the Dirac delta function.
Participants express various viewpoints regarding the transformation of intervals to Dirac delta functions, with no consensus reached on the implications or methods of representation. Some participants agree on certain mathematical approaches, while others question the assumptions and definitions involved.
There are unresolved questions regarding the definitions of L, the nature of the Dirac delta function, and how these concepts interact within the context of the participants' functions and integrals.
This discussion may be of interest to those exploring the mathematical properties of the Dirac delta function, its applications in physics, and the implications of transforming intervals in mathematical expressions.
BvU said:Wouldn't it simply become a point ? Like in: the interval ##[x,x+\epsilon]## becomes the point ##x## for ##\epsilon \downarrow 0##
For an interval (a,b) where a<b, that would make L negative. If 'L' stands for length, do you mean L = b-a?SeM said:Thank you! This is indeed a great suggestion. However, L is included in a function I have, f(x), and currently it is a parameter. It would be useful to use your form somehow, as you write:
\begin{equation}
\int_{-\infty}^x \delta(t-a)dt - \int_{-\infty}^x \delta(t-b)dt
\end{equation}
Is L actually a-b here,
t is just a dummy variable for the integration, so it does not appear as an input or parameter of the indicator function.and t is the variable of my function, f(x)?
I'm confused about what you are trying to do here.If e^(ix)+L is my function, would the equivalent be :
\begin{equation}
\int_{-\infty}^x \delta(e^{it}-a)dt - \int_{-\infty}^x \delta(e^{it}-b)dt
\end{equation} ?
'It just says'? Where are you seeing this reference to the delta function? You need to back up and explain more about what your original problem is and why you want to use the delta function.SeM said:It just says \delta and it gives therefore no idea to me on how it looks like a function.
Who said that it is a 'dummy' function? I never said that.Nevertheless, you say the dirac f is a dummy function.
Why would you want to replace L with a delta function? Is L a constant?The thing I am not sure about is that because L is part of the existing function, f(x), say:
\begin{equation}
f(x) = e^{-ipk}/L
\end{equation}
how would the Dirac variant of this look like, where L is represented by the integral?
L is a parameter, the width of the space the particle is in.FactChecker said:Why would you want to replace L with a delta function? Is L a constant?