Lengths of three segments of a triangle

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The discussion focuses on proving that if \(x\), \(y\), and \(z\) are lengths of segments that can form a triangle, then the segments \(\frac{1}{x+z}\), \(\frac{1}{y+z}\), and \(\frac{1}{x+y}\) also satisfy the triangle inequality. Participants, including kaliprasad, provided solutions demonstrating this property through various approaches. The consensus confirms the validity of the transformation of segment lengths while maintaining the triangle formation condition.

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anemone
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If $x,\,y,\,z$ are lengths of three segments which can form a triangle, show that the same is true for $\dfrac{1}{x+z},\,\dfrac{1}{y+z},\,\dfrac{1}{x+y}$.
 
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anemone said:
If $x,\,y,\,z$ are lengths of three segments which can form a triangle, show that the same is true for $\dfrac{1}{x+z},\,\dfrac{1}{y+z},\,\dfrac{1}{x+y}$.

we need to show that for arbritary sides of length x,y z
$\dfrac{1}{x+z} + \dfrac{1}{y+z}\gt \dfrac{1}{x+y}$
or $(y+z)(x+y) + (x+z)(x+y) \ge (x+z)(x+z)$
or simlifying
$x^2+y^2 + xy + yz + xz \ge z^2$

now
$x^2+y^2 + xy + yz + xz = z(x+y) + x^2+y^2 + xy$
$ \gt z(x+y) $
$\gt z^2$ as $x+y \gt z$

hence proved
 
kaliprasad said:
we need to show that for arbritary sides of length x,y z
$\dfrac{1}{x+z} + \dfrac{1}{y+z}\gt \dfrac{1}{x+y}$
or $(y+z)(x+y) + (x+z)(x+y) \ge (x+z)(x+z)$
or simlifying
$x^2+y^2 + xy + yz + xz \ge z^2$

now
$x^2+y^2 + xy + yz + xz = z(x+y) + x^2+y^2 + xy$
$ \gt z(x+y) $
$\gt z^2$ as $x+y \gt z$

hence proved

Very well done, kaliprasad! :cool: And thanks for participating!
 
Here is another solution of other that I want to share with MHB:

WLOG we can assume that $z\ge y \ge x$ so that $\dfrac{1}{x+y}\ge \dfrac{1}{z+x}\ge\dfrac{1}{y+z}$ and now, it remains to prove that $\dfrac{1}{y+z}+\dfrac{1}{z+x}>\dfrac{1}{x+y}$.

We have

$\dfrac{1}{y+z}+\dfrac{1}{z+x}-\dfrac{1}{x+y}=\dfrac{x^2+xy+y^2+z(x+y-z)}{(y+z)(z+x)(x+y)}>0$ since $x+y>z$ and the result follows.
Note that this is an identical approach to kaliprasad's, but written in a slightly different way.
 
Last edited:
anemone said:
Here is another solution of other that I want to share with MHB:

WLOG we can assume that $z\ge y \ge z$ so that $\dfrac{1}{x+y}\ge \dfrac{1}{z+x}\ge\dfrac{1}{y+z}$ and now, it remains to prove that $\dfrac{1}{y+z}+\dfrac{1}{z+x}>\dfrac{1}{x+y}$.

We have

$\dfrac{1}{y+z}+\dfrac{1}{z+x}-\dfrac{1}{x+y}=\dfrac{x^2+xy+y^2+z(x+y-z)}{(y+z)(z+x)(x+y)}>0$ since $x+y>z$ and the result follows.
Note that this is an identical approach to kaliprasad's, but written in a slightly different way.
There is a typo error in WLOG iline,
it should be $z\ge y \ge x $
Secondly we do not need WLOG line as
$x+y-z \gt 0$ for any x,y,z sides of the triangle
 
Last edited:

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