Limit Sum Riemann: Solve Homework Problem

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Homework Statement



Calculate the limit with Riemann.

Homework Equations



[tex]\displaystyle\lim_{n \to{+}\infty}{\displaystyle\frac{pi}{4}\cdot{} \displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^n{tan^2(\displaystyle\frac{k\cdot{} pi}{4n})\cdot{}\displaystyle\frac{1}{n}}}[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I don't know how to start this problem...

Help me please, thank you.
 
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"With Riemann" means that you treat this as a Riemann sum- which is used to define the definite integral.

If we divide the x-axis, from x= a to x= b, into n intervals then each interval has length [itex]\Delta x= (b- a)/n[itex]. And, if we take the value of the integrand, f, in each interval at the left end of that interval, we have f((b-a)k/n) as the height of the rectangle we are forming on that interval so its area is f((b-a)k/n)(b-a)/n and the whole arera is <br /> [tex]\displaystyle (b- a)\sum_{k=0}^n f((b-a)k/n)\cdot\frac{1}{n}[tex] The limit turns that into an integral.<br /> <br /> So you need to indentify f(x), a, and b in this particular sum, and integrate.[/tex][/tex][/itex][/itex]
 
Explain me in this case please, is the first time I have to do one problem like this. Thank you
 
Halls' already explained it, you just have to put in a bit of effort into trying to understand what he said. Some of his code didn't appear properly so I'll put it up again for you.

HallsofIvy said:
"With Riemann" means that you treat this as a Riemann sum- which is used to define the definite integral.

If we divide the x-axis, from [itex]x= a[/itex] to [itex]x= b[/itex], into [itex]n[/itex] intervals then each interval has length [itex]\Delta x= (b-a)/n[/itex]. And, if we take the value of the integrand, [tex]f(x)[/tex], in each interval at the left end of that interval, we have [tex]f\left(\frac{(b-a)k}{n}\right)[/tex] as the height of the rectangle we are forming on that interval so its area is [tex]f(\frac{(b-a)k}{n})\left(\frac{b-a}{n}\right)[/tex] and the whole area is
[tex]\displaystyle (b- a)\sum_{k=0}^n f\left( \frac{(b-a)k}{n}\right)\cdot\frac{1}{n}[/tex]
If we take the limit as the number of rectangles [itex]n \to \infty[/itex] this becomes [tex]\int^b_a f(x) dx[/tex].
So you need to indentify f(x), a, and b in this particular sum, and integrate.

So carry you this idea for an easy (and common) case, [tex]\int^1_0 f(x) dx[/tex]. You want to find an expression for Riemann sums for that integral. If you do the same idea as what Halls described already, you should get [tex]\int^1_0 f(x) dx = \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)[/tex].
 
I'm sorry but I don't understand, how i know a and b? I'm sorry I'm lost.

I have the idea.. b is [tex]pi / 4[/tex] and [tex]a = 0[/tex] ?

And f(x) = [tex]tan^2(k*pi/4n)[/tex] ? ?