Limits of Infinity: Does f(x) Exist?

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Is it so that for limx->infinity f(x) to exist ,
limx->+infinity f(x) and limx->-infinity should exist and be equal ? if so then why ?
 
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phymatter said:
Is it so that for limx->infinity f(x) to exist ,
limx->+infinity f(x) and limx->-infinity should exist and be equal ? if so then why ?

No, it isn't so. Look at f(x) = Arctan(x).
 
LCKurtz said:
No, it isn't so. Look at f(x) = Arctan(x).

Are you sure , because i.a. maron single variable calculus says that limx->infinity (2x2+3)1/2/(4x+2) does not exist for the same reason .
 
\lim_{x\to \infty} IS the limit as x goes to positive infinity.
 
phymatter said:
Are you sure , because i.a. maron single variable calculus says that limx->infinity (2x2+3)1/2/(4x+2) does not exist for the same reason .

\lim_{x \to \infty}\frac{\sqrt{2x^2 + 3}}{4x + 2} = \frac{1}{4}

Is I.A. Maron the author of a calculus text? I never heard of it.
 
You have to be careful with your conventions. Normally, with the real numbers, "\infty" means "+\infty. However, with the "one-point compactification" of the real numbers (not commonly used for Calculus problems!) we have just the one "point at infinity".
 
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