How can the Lorentz force law be derived using the action principle?

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The discussion focuses on deriving the Lorentz force law using the action principle, specifically through a Lagrangian that incorporates both the mass of a particle and its interaction with an electromagnetic field. The proposed Lagrangian includes terms for the free particle and the electromagnetic interaction, emphasizing the importance of parameter independence. The derivation leads to equations of motion that reveal the relationship between the particle's momentum and the electromagnetic field via the Faraday tensor. The discussion also highlights the flexibility in choosing the parameter for the action, which can simplify the equations of motion while maintaining their validity. Ultimately, the derivation connects classical mechanics with electromagnetic theory through a covariant framework.
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Hi, I am trying to derive the Lorentz force law in the following form:
<br /> q \frac{dw^\mu}{d\tau} = q w^\mu \partial_\nu A_\sigma \epsilon_\mu^{\nu \sigma}<br />
by varying the following Lagrangian for a classical particle:
<br /> S = \int d^3 x \left( -m \int d\tau \delta(x-w(\tau) ) + q \int d\tau \frac{dw^\mu}{d\tau} A_\mu \delta(x - w(\tau) ) \right)<br />
where w tracks the position of the particle as a function of proper time. Note that there may be a couple terms/indices missing from the above expressions (still trying to figure that out).

I've read on a different thread that Feynman has that derivation in "QM and Path Integrals", which I have handy right now, however I couldn't find the derivation I am looking for.

Any push in the right direction would be more than appreciated.
 
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The covariant formalism is a bit tricky. The problem is that you cannot use the proper time directly in the Lagrangian, because it implicitly contains the constraint that \mathrm{d} \tau=\mathrm{d} t \sqrt{1-v^2} (I'm setting the speed of light to 1 here).

You can, however use an arbitrary "world parameter" and write down a parameter-independent action functional. For the free particle it's
S_0[x]=-m \int \mathrm{d} \lambda \sqrt{\dot{x}_{\mu} \dot{x}^{\mu}}.
I'm using the "west-coast convention" for the pseudometric, i.e., \eta_{\mu \nu}=\text{diag}(1,-1,-1,-1).
The interaction with an external electromagnetic field is determined by
S_i[x]=-q \int \mathrm{d} \lambda \dot{x}^{\mu} A_{\mu}(x).
Note that the total Lagrangian,
L=-m \sqrt{\dot{x}_{\mu} \dot{x}^{\mu}} - q \dot{x}^{\mu} A_{\mu}(x)
is a homogeneous function of degree 1 wrt. \dot{x}. This implies the parameter independence. Now you can derive the equations of motion from the Hamilton principle of least action as usual, using the Euler-Lagrange equations. The canonical momenta are given by
p_{\mu}=\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}^{\mu}}=-m \frac{\dot{x}_{\mu}}{\sqrt{\dot{x}_{\nu} \dot{x}^{\nu}}}-q A_{\mu}
and thus the equation of motion
\dot{p}_{\mu}=\frac{\partial L}{\partial x^{\mu}} \; \Rightarrow \; -m \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} \lambda} \left (\frac{\dot{x}_{\mu}}{\sqrt{\dot{x}_{\nu} \dot{x}^{\nu}}} \right ) - q \dot{x}^{\nu} \partial_{\nu} A_{\mu}(x)=-q \dot{x}^{\nu} \partial_{\mu} A_{\nu}.
Now you can bring this into a more familiar form by rearranging the terms to
m \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} \lambda} \left (\frac{\dot{x}_{\mu}}{\sqrt{\dot{x}_{\nu} \dot{x}^{\nu}}} \right ) = q \dot{x}^{\nu} (\partial_{\mu} A_{\nu}-\partial_{\nu} A_{\mu})=q F_{\mu \nu} \dot{x}^{\nu}.
Now you can choose for \lambda whatever parameter you like. It is crucial to note that the equation of motion, if derived from a Lagrangian that is homogeneous in \dot{x}^{\mu} of degree one, automatically fulfills the constraint equation
\dot{x}^{\mu} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} \lambda} \left (\frac{\dot{x}_{\mu}}{\sqrt{\dot{x}_{\nu} \dot{x}^{\nu}}} \right )=0,
which implies that the 4 equations of motion are not independent from each other and thus you can choose the parameter \lambda as you like after the variation is done, i.e., on the level of the equations of motion.

If you choose the proper time, \lambda=\tau, then you get \dot{x}_{\mu} \dot{x}^{\mu}=1 and thus
m \frac{\mathrm{d} u_{\mu}}{\mathrm{d} \tau}=q F_{\mu \nu} u^{\nu} \quad \text{with} \quad u^{\mu}=m \frac{\mathrm{d} x^{\mu}}{\mathrm{d} \tau}.
You can as well chose a coordinate time, t of an inertial frame. Then the equation of motion appears in a form that is not longer manifestly covariant, but you get, because of \dot{x}^{\mu} \dot{x}_{\nu}=1-\vec{v}^2, \quad \vec{v}=\frac{\mathrm{d} \vec{x}}{\mathrm{d} t},
for the spatial part of the equations of motion (writing the Faraday tensor in terms of the three-dimensional notation with \vec{E} and \vec{B})
m \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} t} \left (\frac{\vec{v}}{\sqrt{1-\vec{v}^2}} \right ) = q (\vec{E}+\vec{v} \times \vec{B}),
and the time component is just the energy-work relation, following from this:
m \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} t} \left (\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\vec{v}^2}} \right ) = \vec{v} \cdot \vec{E}.
 
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