rkrsnan
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I have a two component Weyl spinor transforming as \psi \rightarrow M \psi where M is an SL(2) matrix which represents a Lorentz transformation. Suppose another spinor \chi also transforms the same way \chi \rightarrow M \chi. I can write a Lorentz invariant term \psi^T (-i\sigma^2) \chi where (-i\sigma^2) =\left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & -1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{array} \right). This is possible because M^T(-i\sigma^2)M=(-i\sigma^2). I understand everything up to here. My question is the following. For majorana neutrinos they write the Lagrangian as \psi^T (-i\sigma^2) \psi where \psi is the two component majorana field. The term is obviously Lorentz invariant, but when I expand it terms of the two components I get zero. (\psi_1 \ \psi_2)\left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & -1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{array} \right)\left(\begin{array} (\psi_1 \\ \psi_2 \end{array} \right)=0.What mistake am I making here? Please help me out!