Magnetic field above a thin charged disc

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a thin disc of radius R with a surface charge density \(\sigma\) that rotates about the z-axis. The objective is to determine the magnetic field along the z-axis due to this rotating charged disc.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of the Biot-Savart law and whether it can be adapted for a surface current density. There is an exploration of treating infinitesimal segments of the disc as current loops and integrating to find the magnetic field.

Discussion Status

Guidance has been offered regarding the use of LaTeX for clarity in equations. Some participants have provided insights into the formulation of the current for each loop and the integration process. Multiple interpretations of the current and magnetic field calculations are being explored.

Contextual Notes

There are discussions about notation and the complexity of integrals involved, as well as questions about the assumptions regarding the current flowing through the loops and the methods used for integration.

russdot
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Homework Statement


A thin disc of radius R carries a surface charge [tex]\sigma[/tex]. It rotates with angular frequency [tex]\omega[/tex] about the z axis, which is perpendicular to the disc and through its center. What is B along the z axis?


Homework Equations


General Biot-Savart law:
B(x) = [tex]\frac{\mu_{0}}{4\pi}\int\frac{J(x') x (x-x')}{|x-x'|}d^{3}x'[/tex]

K [tex]\equiv \frac{dI}{dl_{perpendicular}}[/tex]
K = [tex]\sigma[/tex]v


The Attempt at a Solution


I'm wondering if the general form Biot-Savart law can be 'generalized' to a 2-D surface current density K instead, and if the form would be the same?
Giving:
B(x) = [tex]\frac{\mu_{0}}{4\pi}\int\frac{K(x') x (x-x')}{|x-x'|}d^{2}x'[/tex]
 
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I don't follow your equations, you aren't using a standard notation. Regardless, you don't need to use a surface current. You can treat every infinitesimal interval of radius dr as a loop of current. Integrate the equation for field from a current loop over r from 0 to R
 
Hi russdot, try using \vec{B} instead of B in your LaTeX equations, and put the whole equation in LaTeX to make it easier to read.

The Biot-Savart Law for a surface current is:

[tex]\vec{B}(\vec{r})=\frac{\mu _0}{4 \pi} \int \frac{\vec{K}(\vec{r'}) \times \widehat{\vec{r}-\vec{r'}}}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r'}|^2} d^3r'[/tex]

Such integrals are tedious to evaluate, so if you are allowed to use Ampere's law or calculate the vector potential [itex]\vec{A}[/itex] first, I would do that.
 
Hi gabbagabbahey,
Thanks for the tips, I'm still getting used to the LaTeX notation.

marcusl,
Ok, and then each infinitesimal loop will have a current I = [tex]\sigma 2 \pi R dr[/tex].
 
russdot said:
Hi gabbagabbahey,
Thanks for the tips, I'm still getting used to the LaTeX notation.

marcusl,
Ok, and then each infinitesimal loop will have a current I = [tex]\sigma 2 \pi R dr[/tex].

You're welcome:smile:

Shouldn't each loop have a current of [itex]2 \pi r \sigma \omega dr[/itex]?:wink:
 
Ah yes, I really should eat some food...
but since [tex]\vec{I} = \lambda \vec{v}[/tex]
and [tex]\lambda = \sigma 2 \pi dr[/tex]
and [tex]\vec{v} = r \vec{\omega}[/tex]
then [tex]\vec{I} = \sigma 2 \pi \vec{\omega} r dr[/tex], correct?
 
Yep, looks good to me (my sigma didn't show up right the first time)...what then is the magnetic field of each loop? What do you get for the total magnetic field?
 
gabbagabbahey said:
what then is the magnetic field of each loop?
For the magnetic field of each loop (along Z axis), I get:
[tex]\vec{B}(z) = \frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \int \frac{\sigma 2 \pi \omega x'^{2} (\hat{\phi} \times \hat{r})dx'd\phi}{x'^{2} + z^{2}}[/tex]
where [tex]\hat{\phi} \times \hat{\r} = \hat{k}cos\psi + \hat{R}sin\psi[/tex]
([tex]\psi[/tex] is the angle between[tex]\vec{r} = \vec{x} - \vec{x}'[/tex] and [tex]\hat{R}[/tex] where [tex]\hat{R}[/tex] is the cylindrical radial unit vector)

the [tex]sin\psi[/tex] term integrates out to zero, because [tex]\hat{R} = \hat{i}cos\phi + \hat{j}sin\phi[/tex] and I used the trig substitution [tex]cos\psi = \frac{x'}{\sqrt{x'^{2} + z^{2}}}[/tex]

[tex]\vec{B}(z) = \mu_{0} \pi \sigma \omega \int_{0}^{R} \frac{ x'^{3} dx'}{(x'^{2} + z^{2})^{3/2}} \hat{k}[/tex]

gabbagabbahey said:
What do you get for the total magnetic field?
Which gives a total magnetic field:
[tex]\vec{B}(z) = \mu_{0} \pi \sigma \omega (\frac{2z^{2} + R^2}{\sqrt{z^{2} + R^{2}}} - 2z) \hat{k}[/tex]
 
Uhm... wouldn't the current flowing through an infinitesimal loop be the charge divided by a period T=[tex]\frac{2\pi}{\omega}[/tex] ?
so
[tex]i=\sigma\omega rdr[/tex]

P.s: how did you resolve the integral? Substituction with sinh(t) ? Are there any faster method?
 
Last edited:

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