Magnetization of the free electron gas

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The discussion focuses on calculating the density of states for spin-up states in a free electron gas under a magnetic field. The participant has derived the expression for the spin-up density of states, indicating that it is half of the total density of states when there is no magnetic field. They are seeking assistance in performing the integral for the energy associated with spin-up states, specifically needing to determine the Fermi energy as a function of the magnetic field, denoted as E_F(B). The participant is looking for guidance on how to express E_F(B) in terms of another variable, x. Overall, the thread highlights the complexities of magnetization in a free electron gas and the need for further insights into Fermi energy calculations.
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Homework Statement
Show that, with this definition the total energy of the spin up components reads:
$$U^+ = U_0 (1+x)^{5/3} + \frac{1}{2} N \mu_B B (1+x)$$ where $$U_0=\frac{3}{10} N E_F$$, in terms of the usual Fermi energy of the gas at $$B=0; E_F = \hbar^2 (3\pi^2 N/V)^{2/3}/(2m)$$. Find the corresponding expression for $$U^-$$
Relevant Equations
$$N^+ = \frac{1}{2} N (1+x)$$ and $$N^- = \frac{1}{2} N (1-x)$$
Hello everybody, I tried the following approach. I calculated the density of states for the spin up states:

$$g_+(\epsilon + \mu_BB) = (1/2) g(\epsilon) \Rightarrow g_+ \frac{1}{2} g(\epsilon - \mu_B B)$$. As far as I understand it, this comes from the fact that when there is no magnetic field the spin up and spin down make up excactly half of the density of states (and of the occupation number) Now i'd like to perform the integral $$U_+ = \int_0^{E_F(B)} \epsilon g_+(\epsilon) d\epsilon$$, but for this I need the Fermi energy depending on the magnetic field $$E_F(B)$$ and I do not know yet how to obtain it. In fact I would like to obtain $$E_F(B)$$ in terms of x. Any help is appreciated, thanks in advance!
 
So is there some elegant way to do this or am I just supposed to follow my nose and sub the Taylor expansions for terms in the two boost matrices under the assumption ##v,w\ll 1##, then do three ugly matrix multiplications and get some horrifying kludge for ##R## and show that the product of ##R## and its transpose is the identity matrix with det(R)=1? Without loss of generality I made ##\mathbf{v}## point along the x-axis and since ##\mathbf{v}\cdot\mathbf{w} = 0## I set ##w_1 = 0## to...

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