ferranvalles
- 4
- 0
Can someone explain why the maximum coefficient of friction is 1??
Why μ <= 1 ?
Thank You.
Why μ <= 1 ?
Thank You.
314159271828 said:It could be greater then 1. For example if you have glue, or a really viscose m aterial between the two surface.
ferranvalles said:But if you are talking about glues and something like this, you are not talking about friction, it's a different force.
For definition, when the coefficient of friction is m:
0<=m<=1
And I wonder, why m<=1?
ferranvalles said:Thank you everybody.
Now I understand the coefficient friction can be higher than 1.
Another explication is that in a ramp, the coefficient of friction is equal to the tangent of ramp's angle.
The angle can be higher than 45º, so the tangent would be also higher than 1, as a consequence we can get a coefficient as high as we want (considering that a body is holded in the ramp).