kote said:
For the sake of consistency and communication, philosophers stick with the requirement that knowledge must be true. Unless they don't. But then they tell you they aren't

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Even though you may want to initiate the process of philosophizing with the criteria of only counting true knowledge as knowledge, that is an empirically confounding approach considering that information has to be known before it can be known as true or false.
So when you try to retro-actively deny knowledge-status to a known piece of information once you establish it as being false, you end up with an anti-empirical approach to knowledge.
I think you got it right when you said that information becomes knowledge only once it becomes known. It is then logical to say that ALL information becomes knowledge once it becomes known.
So if I come inside and tell you that the temperature is 70, that information becomes known to you as is therefore "knowledge" in the sense that "knowledge" is the noun form of the verb "to know." If the actual temperature turns out to have been 80 and your perception, or a miscalibrated thermometer, caused you to have false-knowledge of the temperature, it doesn't mean that you didn't know the information "70 degrees outside."
I think the distinction we're debating here is knowing verses Knowing, in the same sense that people talk about truth/Truth or reason/Reason. If you say "I know that," the implication is that what is known is true; i.e. it is a truth claim." If you say, "My knowledge is that," then the claim becomes one of relative knowledge, which is bracketed for truth value. The distinction is based on connotation and inflection due to nuances in usage, not the denotative meaning of the word generally.
A married-bachelor is an oxymoron because "bachelor" directly refers to the marital status of the person. "Knowledge" does not directly refer to the truth status of a claim, only whether it is known by the knower. If "know" only referred to true information, people could not be "known" since they are not true or false.
Granted there is some tension with claiming to know something false, but I think that is just due to an implicit truth-orientation built into the act of knowing. As Foucault says, people have a compulsion to tell the truth. Maybe it is through this implicit inflection embedded into the work "know" through common usage that this compulsion is communicated and socialized.
To the extent that truth can only be established in critical evaluation of knowledge, it is not really possible to simply "know" something as true without first subjecting the knowledge to critical reflection. To the extent that all knowledge is subjective prior to its being established as objective or factual, simply asserting "I know X" as a statement of truth seems to be inherently deceptive. Therefore it seems more honest to say, "To my knowledge," followed by a statement of fact.
That's not to say that you can't assert truth-power by stating "I know X," but that to do so is more an assertion than a true statement. "I know it is sunny outside" invites critical investigation whereas "to my knowledge, it is sunny outside" is verified by the fact that the speaker is acknowledging the source of their claim, i.e. their own knowledge.