alex3
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For the following two-dimensional metric
ds^2 = a^2(d\theta^2 + \sin^2{\theta}d\phi^2)
using the Euler-Lagrange equations reveal the following equations of motion
\ddot{\phi} + 2\frac{\cos{\theta}}{\sin{\theta}}\dot{\theta}\dot{\phi} = 0
\ddot{\theta} - \sin{\theta}\cos{\theta}\dot{\phi}^2 = 0
Using the general geodesic equation form \ddot{x}^{\alpha} + \Gamma^{\alpha}_{\beta\gamma}\dot{x}^\beta\dot{x}^{\gamma}=0, we infer that the equations derived describe geodesics. This shows that the only non-zero terms of the metric connection \Gamma^{\alpha}_{\beta\gamma} are
\Gamma^{\theta}_{\phi\phi} = -\sin{\theta}\cos{\theta},\quad \Gamma^{\phi}_{\theta\phi} = \Gamma^{\phi}_{\phi\theta} = \frac{\cos{\theta}}{\sin{\theta}}
My problem is comprehending where the factor of two has gone for the \Gamma^{\phi}_{\phi\theta} term. Is it due to fact that it's a coefficient of a mixed derivative, why is that?
ds^2 = a^2(d\theta^2 + \sin^2{\theta}d\phi^2)
using the Euler-Lagrange equations reveal the following equations of motion
\ddot{\phi} + 2\frac{\cos{\theta}}{\sin{\theta}}\dot{\theta}\dot{\phi} = 0
\ddot{\theta} - \sin{\theta}\cos{\theta}\dot{\phi}^2 = 0
Using the general geodesic equation form \ddot{x}^{\alpha} + \Gamma^{\alpha}_{\beta\gamma}\dot{x}^\beta\dot{x}^{\gamma}=0, we infer that the equations derived describe geodesics. This shows that the only non-zero terms of the metric connection \Gamma^{\alpha}_{\beta\gamma} are
\Gamma^{\theta}_{\phi\phi} = -\sin{\theta}\cos{\theta},\quad \Gamma^{\phi}_{\theta\phi} = \Gamma^{\phi}_{\phi\theta} = \frac{\cos{\theta}}{\sin{\theta}}
My problem is comprehending where the factor of two has gone for the \Gamma^{\phi}_{\phi\theta} term. Is it due to fact that it's a coefficient of a mixed derivative, why is that?