Metric Spaces of Bounded Sequences

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of metric spaces, specifically focusing on bounded sequences and their convergence in different metrics, \(\rho_1\) and \(\rho_\infty\). The original poster attempts to find a counterexample to demonstrate that convergence in one metric does not imply convergence in another.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster questions the definitions of convergence in the context of bounded sequences and explores the implications of different metrics. Some participants clarify the correct formulation of the metrics and convergence criteria, while others suggest considering sequences composed of 0's and 1's as potential counterexamples.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing clarifications and corrections regarding the definitions and assumptions involved. There is an acknowledgment of the need to consider sequences of sequences, and some guidance has been offered regarding the nature of the counterexample sought.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of metric spaces and the specific properties of convergence in the context of bounded sequences. There are indications of typos and misunderstandings in the original problem setup that are being addressed.

octane90
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I was attempting to find a counterexample to the problem below. I think I may have, but was ultimately left with more questions than answers.

Consider the space, [itex]L[/itex], of all bounded sequences with the metric [itex]\rho_1[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \rho_1(x,y)=\sum\limits_{t=1}^{\infty}2^{-t}|x_t-y_t|[/itex]

Show that a sequence that converges to [itex]X^*[/itex] in [itex](L,\rho_1)[/itex] does not necessarily converge to [itex]X^*[/itex] in [itex](L,\rho_\infty)[/itex]

Where, [itex]\rho_\infty(x,y)=sup_t|x_t-y_t|[/itex].

I believe convergence means:

X converges to Y if [itex]\forall \epsilon>0 \exists N[/itex] s.t. [itex]\sum\limits_{t=N}^{\infty}2^{-t}|x_t-y_t|<\epsilon[/itex]

I believe that [itex]x_n=sin (n)[/itex] converges to the 0 sequence in [itex]\rho_1[/itex], but not in [itex]\rho_\infty[/itex]. However, it seems like [itex]x_n=sin (n)[/itex] could also be shown to converge to {1,1,1,1,...} under [itex]\rho_1[/itex] which shouldn't be allowed.

Could anyone help me out?
 
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octane90 said:
Where, [itex]\rho_\infty(x,y)=sup(x_t,y_t)[/itex].

I doubt that this is correct. It should be [itex]\rho_\infty(x,y)=\sup_t |x_t-y_t|[/itex].

I believe convergence means:

X converges to Y if [itex]\forall \epsilon>0 \exists N[/itex] s.t. [itex]\sum\limits_{t=N}^{\infty}2^{-t}|x_t-y_t|<\epsilon[/itex]

This is not what convergence is. First of all you must have a sequence of elements in L. That is, you have to start from a sequence of sequences. Let [itex]X_k=(x_k^n)_n[/itex], then we can say that [itex]X_k\rightarrow Y[/itex] if for each [itex]\varepsilon>0[/itex], there exists an N such that for all [itex]k\geq N[/itex] holds that [itex]\rho_1(X_k,Y)<\varepsilon[/itex]. That last inequality is of course the same as

[tex]\sum_{t=1}^{+\infty} 2^{-t}|x_k^t-y^t|<\varepsilon[/tex]

I believe that [itex]x_n=sin (n)[/itex] converges to the 0 sequence in [itex]\rho_1[/itex], but not in [itex]\rho_\infty[/itex]. However, it seems like [itex]x_n=sin (n)[/itex] could also be shown to converge to {1,1,1,1,...} under $\rho_1$ which should be allowed.

This is of course incorrect, since [itex]x_n=\sin(n)[/itex] is only one sequence. Again: you must have a sequence of sequences.
 
Thanks, that was very helpful. It makes sense that I need to be thinking of a sequence of sequences. I was just having trouble wrapping my head around this L space.

And you are of course right about my typo in the problem set-up, I fixed it.
 
The counterexample you're looking for is very easy. Think about sequences with only 0's and 1's.
 

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