Modeling Friction with Lagrange: Easiest Method?

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The discussion focuses on using the Lagrange approach to model a system with friction, specifically addressing how to incorporate energy dissipation into the equations of motion. It is clarified that simply adding a term for energy loss to the potential energy is not appropriate, as it won't appear in the equations of motion. Instead, the correct method involves using the Euler-Lagrange equations and introducing a dissipation function, which represents the power lost to friction and is typically a quadratic function of generalized velocities. The conversation also touches on the distinction between linear and viscous friction, with the dissipation function adapting accordingly. References for further reading include "Classical Mechanics" by Goldstein, Poole, & Safko.
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Hi Everyone,

I want to use the Lagrange approach (which I am not terribly familiar with) to model a system with friction. I was thinking of modeling the losses due to friction as a simple constant dissipation of energy over time. Can I simply add a term of the form -Ft to the potential energy? (F is the amount of energy lost to friction in a unit time)

If not, what is the easiest way to add an energy-dissapation term?

-Thanks
Dale
 
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If you add a term -Ft it will not appear then it will not appear in the equations of motion!

Better to use the Euler-Lagrange equations to find the equations of motion, and then insert your friction directly into the equations of motion.

Edit: Some treatments due this by making the RHS of the Euler-Lagrange equations non-zero.
 
There is a standard way to do this, by means of a "dissipation function" \mathcal F. The dissipation function represents the power lost to friction, so it is often a quadratic function of the generalized velocities \dot q_i. Lagrange's equations of motion then become:

\frac d{dt} \left( \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q_i} \right) - \frac{\partial L}{\partial q_i} = - \frac{\partial {\mathcal F}}{\partial \dot q_i}

Note that \mathcal F is quadratic in the velocities only when the frictional forces are linear in the velocities; that is, for ordinary friction. For viscous cases when the forces are proportional to the square of the velocity, \mathcal F would take on a different form.
 
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Crosson said:
Edit: Some treatments due this by making the RHS of the Euler-Lagrange equations non-zero.
Ben Niehoff said:
There is a standard way to do this, by means of a "dissipation function" \mathcal F. The dissipation function represents the power lost to friction, so it is often a quadratic function of the generalized velocities \dot q_i. Lagrange's equations of motion then become:

\frac d{dt} \left( \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q_i} \right) - \frac{\partial L}{\partial q_i} = \frac{\partial {\mathcal F}}{\partial \dot q_i}
Thanks, to both of you, this is exactly what I need.
Ben Niehoff said:
Note that \mathcal F is quadratic in the velocities only when the frictional forces are linear in the velocities; that is, for ordinary friction. For viscous cases when the forces are proportional to the square of the velocity, \mathcal F would take on a different form.
By frictional forces being linear in velocity I assume that you mean something to the effect that the energy dissipated by ordinary friction over a unit time is proportional to the velocity, because the force is constant. Is that correct? I am just trying to figure out how to construct this function. It looks like it should be in units of energy/time, perhaps representing the rate at which energy enters the system (negative numbers for dissipation, and 0 for purely conservative).

Edit: never mind, I just noticed that you already said it was power (energy/time) lost to friction (positive for dissipation). But if you have any references that discuss this in depth I would be appreciative!
 
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Ack, I forgot a minus sign! I've fixed the original post. The revised equation is:

\frac d{dt} \left( \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q_i} \right) - \frac{\partial L}{\partial q_i} = - \frac{\partial {\mathcal F}}{\partial \dot q_i}

\mathcal F is then a positive definite quadratic form in the generalized velocities. Specifically, if the generalized forces of friction are

Q_i = -k_i \dot q_i

then \mathcal F is given by

{\mathcal F} = \frac 12 \sum_i k_i \dot q_i^2

such that

Q_i = - \frac{\partial {\mathcal F}}{\partial \dot q_i}

The reference I'm using is Classical Mechanics, by Goldstein, Poole, & Safko. I looked in Marion & Thornton also, but I couldn't find it (it may be in there; I didn't look very hard).
 
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For simple comparison, I think the same thought process can be followed as a block slides down a hill, - for block down hill, simple starting PE of mgh to final max KE 0.5mv^2 - comparing PE1 to max KE2 would result in finding the work friction did through the process. efficiency is just 100*KE2/PE1. If a mousetrap car travels along a flat surface, a starting PE of 0.5 k th^2 can be measured and maximum velocity of the car can also be measured. If energy efficiency is defined by...

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