Oxymoron
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Homework Statement
Prove that for a random variable [tex]X[/tex] with continuous probability distribution function [tex]f_X(x)[/tex] that the Moment Generating Function, defined as
[tex] M_X(t) := E[e^{tX}][/tex]
is
[tex] M_X(t) = \int_x^{\infty}e^{tx}f_X(x)dx [/tex]
Homework Equations
Above and
[tex] E[X] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}xf_X(x)dx[/tex]
The Attempt at a Solution
This expression is given in so many textbooks and the ones that I have read all skip over this derivation. I want to be able to prove (1) to myself.
Proof:
Write the exponential function as a Maclaurin series:
[tex] M_X(t) = E[e^{tX}] [/tex]
[tex] = E[1+tX+\frac{t^2}{2!}X^2+\frac{t^3}{3!}X^3+...][/tex]
Since [tex]E[1] = 1[/tex] and the [tex]E[t^n/n!]=t^n/n![/tex] because they are constant and the expectation of a constant is itself you get:
[tex] = 1+tE[X]+\frac{t^2}{2!}E[X^2]+\frac{t^3}{3!}E[X^3]+...[/tex]...also using the linearity of E. Now, writing the series as a sum:
[tex] =\sum_{t=0}^{\infty}\frac{t^n}{n!}E[X^n][/tex]
And extracting the exponential:
[tex] =e^t\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}E[X^n][/tex]
Now I am stuck! I know that I am meant to use
[tex] E[X] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}xf_X(x)dx[/tex]
but I have [tex]E[X^n][/tex] and I also have [tex]e^t[/tex] and not [tex]e^{tx}[/tex].
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