Most probable velocity from Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution

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The discussion revolves around deriving the most probable velocity (v_mp) from the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution, specifically the formula v_mp = √(2k_bT/m). The user encountered a mistake resulting in a negative value under the square root during their derivation. They realized that the error stemmed from mismanaging algebraic signs while manipulating the equations. Suggestions were made to simplify the calculation by substituting variables to make the equation easier to handle. The user acknowledged their oversight and expressed gratitude for the guidance.
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Homework Statement
Derive the formula ##v_mp = \sqrt{\frac{2k_bT}{m}}##
Relevant Equations
##f(v)=4\pi(\frac{m}{2k_BT})^{\frac 3 2} v^2 e^{\frac{-E}{k_BT}}##
product rule: ##\frac{d}{dx} (uv) = u'v + v'u##
This wasn't really a homework problem: I just randomly realised that I had been using the formula ##v_{mp} = \sqrt{\frac{2k_bT}{m}}## without actually knowing where it came from, so I decided to try and derive it. I got pretty close but I think I made some sort of silly mistake because the answer I got was the negative of what I should have gotten. I spent quite a while staring at it yesterday trying to figure out what went wrong, to no avail, and tried the same thing today... I fear I have tunnel vision. The mistake is probably a really small and dumb one, but I'm having quite a bit of trouble finding it :cry:

Using the idea that ##v_mp## would be when the plot of the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution is at a maximum for that given temperature and mass, and the derivative is 0 at maxima:
$$ \frac{d[f(v)]}{dv} = 0$$
$$\frac d {dv} (4\pi(\frac{m}{2k_BT})^{\frac 3 2} v^2 e^{\frac{-mv^2}{2k_BT}}) = 0$$
$$\frac d{dv} (v^2 e^{\frac{-mv^2}{2k_BT}}) = 0$$
$$v^2(\frac{-mv}{k_BT})(e^{\frac{-mv^2}{2k_BT}}) + 2v(e^{\frac{-mv^2}{2k_BT}}) = 0$$
$$v(-\frac{mv}{k_BT}) + 2 = 0$$
$$v^2 = \frac{2}{-\frac{m}{k_BT}} = -\frac{2k_BT}{m}$$
$$v=\sqrt{-\frac {2k_BT}{m}}$$
Somehow I got a negative inside the square root: where did I go wrong?
 
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TensorCalculus said:
where did I go wrong?
Screen Shot 2025-08-13 at 7.39.44 AM.webp
See figure on the right. Where did the ##v^2## in the last equation come from and why is there no sign change when you move the ##2## to the right hand side?

It looks like you did too much algebra in your head.
 
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1755089807504.webp



From
1755089932728.webp


$$\frac{d}{dv} F = 2v \frac{d}{dv^2} F = 0 $$
It is easier to calculate.
 
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kuruman said:
View attachment 364375See figure on the right. Where did the ##v^2## in the last equation come from and why is there no sign change when you move the ##2## to the right hand side?

It looks like you did too much algebra in your head.
The ##v^2## came from pulling the v out from the numerator of the fraction in the first line.
I see my mistake now :cry: how did I not spot it :cry:. All I had to do was realise that subtracting the two meant that it would be negative on the other side... whoops...
anuttarasammyak said:
View attachment 364376


From
View attachment 364377

$$\frac{d}{dv} F = 2v \frac{d}{dv^2} F = 0 $$
It is easier to calculate.
yeah... I don't know how I managed that.
What do you mean by the last bit where you talk about that being easier to calculate?
 
Formula in ( ) , I referred as F, has v^2 only, no single v. Try replacing v^2 with x in my proposal. The equation would become easier to handle.
 
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Ah right: I'll give it a shot tomorrow morning, thank you for the suggestion!
 
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