Moving a function under an integral

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NanakiXIII
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I've got an integral of the form

[tex] \int d^3x e^{-i \vec{k} \cdot \vec{x}} \int d^3k e^{i \vec{k} \cdot \vec{x}} f(\vec{k})[/tex]

and I'm wondering whether or not the following is a valid approach. I want to move the factor

[tex] e^{-i \vec{k} \cdot \vec{x}}[/tex]

under the k-integral, so I relabel my k so that I end up with

[tex] \int d^3x \int d^3k e^{i (\vec{k}-\vec{k}') \cdot \vec{x}} f(\vec{k}).[/tex]

One now just needs to remember that the primed k is actually the same as the old k, but we don't want to integrate over it. Now the x-integral turns the exponential factor into a delta-function, so that we get (apart from some factors of [itex]2\pi[/itex])

[tex] \int d^3k \delta(\vec{k}-\vec{k}') f(\vec{k}),[/tex]

which just yields

[tex] f(\vec{k}') = f(\vec{k}).[/tex]

Now, maybe it's just me, but what I just did sounds too easy to be true, but I'm not sure what might be flawed about my reasoning. Can anyone tell me whether there is anything wrong with it?
 
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Hi NanakiXIII! :smile:
NanakiXIII said:
One now just needs to remember that the primed k is actually the same as the old k, but we don't want to integrate over it. Now the x-integral turns the exponential factor into a delta-function, so that we get (apart from some factors of 2π)

Your very first line didn't make sense …

how you could you possibly start with the same k both outside and inside an integral? :confused:

(where does this come from?)
 
tiny-tim said:
Hi NanakiXIII! :smile:


Your very first line didn't make sense …

how you could you possibly start with the same k both outside and inside an integral? :confused:

(where does this come from?)

I'm not sure what you mean. Why couldn't there be a function of the same variable k outside the integral, as well as a function of k inside? Perhaps I didn't write it down clearly. My expression is

[tex] \int d^3x \left( e^{-i \vec{k} \cdot \vec{x}} \int d^3k \left( e^{i \vec{k} \cdot \vec{x}} f(\vec{k}) \right) \right)[/tex]

This integral arose in a QFT problem I was doing. Basically there's a Fourier expansion for a function (the integral over k) and I'm transforming that back (but with a slightly different transformation).
 
tiny-tim said:
perhaps I should have been more specific …

how you could you possibly start with the same k both outside an integral and as the dummy variable of integration inside it? :wink:

I still don't understand. Perhaps you're tripping over some mathematical sloppiness I'm not aware of.
 
I don't understand what makes you think that they were the same k in the first place …
NanakiXIII said:
One now just needs to remember that the primed k is actually the same as the old k, but we don't want to integrate over it. Now the x-integral turns the exponential factor into a delta-function, so that we get (apart from some factors of 2π)
 
tiny-tim said:
I don't understand what makes you think that they were the same k in the first place …

Oh. I see what you mean now. I had forgotten what I was integrating over (i.e. that it's not an indefinite integral). I see why you reacted so confused. Thanks for helping me see that. It was just a sloppiness, but one I forgot to keep track of.

This makes things even easier. At least now I'm convinced it's also correct. You didn't see any error in the rest, right?
 
Thanks for the help!