Moving a function under an integral

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    Function Integral
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the manipulation of integrals in the context of quantum field theory (QFT), specifically focusing on the validity of moving a function under an integral sign. Participants explore the implications of relabeling variables and the treatment of dummy variables in integrals.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents an integral involving a function and questions the validity of moving an exponential factor under the k-integral.
  • Another participant challenges the initial reasoning, questioning how the same variable k can be used both outside and inside the integral.
  • A participant suggests that it is possible to have a function of the same variable outside and inside the integral, seeking clarification on the confusion regarding variable usage.
  • Further replies emphasize the importance of distinguishing between the dummy variable of integration and other instances of the variable.
  • Eventually, one participant acknowledges a misunderstanding regarding the nature of the integral and expresses confidence in the correctness of the remaining steps.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the treatment of the variable k, with some questioning the initial approach and others clarifying their understanding. The discussion does not reach a consensus on the initial manipulation but resolves some confusion about variable usage.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted sloppiness in tracking the variables involved in the integrals, which contributes to the confusion. The discussion highlights the importance of careful notation in mathematical expressions.

NanakiXIII
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I've got an integral of the form

[tex] \int d^3x e^{-i \vec{k} \cdot \vec{x}} \int d^3k e^{i \vec{k} \cdot \vec{x}} f(\vec{k})[/tex]

and I'm wondering whether or not the following is a valid approach. I want to move the factor

[tex] e^{-i \vec{k} \cdot \vec{x}}[/tex]

under the k-integral, so I relabel my k so that I end up with

[tex] \int d^3x \int d^3k e^{i (\vec{k}-\vec{k}') \cdot \vec{x}} f(\vec{k}).[/tex]

One now just needs to remember that the primed k is actually the same as the old k, but we don't want to integrate over it. Now the x-integral turns the exponential factor into a delta-function, so that we get (apart from some factors of [itex]2\pi[/itex])

[tex] \int d^3k \delta(\vec{k}-\vec{k}') f(\vec{k}),[/tex]

which just yields

[tex] f(\vec{k}') = f(\vec{k}).[/tex]

Now, maybe it's just me, but what I just did sounds too easy to be true, but I'm not sure what might be flawed about my reasoning. Can anyone tell me whether there is anything wrong with it?
 
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Hi NanakiXIII! :smile:
NanakiXIII said:
One now just needs to remember that the primed k is actually the same as the old k, but we don't want to integrate over it. Now the x-integral turns the exponential factor into a delta-function, so that we get (apart from some factors of 2π)

Your very first line didn't make sense …

how you could you possibly start with the same k both outside and inside an integral? :confused:

(where does this come from?)
 
tiny-tim said:
Hi NanakiXIII! :smile:


Your very first line didn't make sense …

how you could you possibly start with the same k both outside and inside an integral? :confused:

(where does this come from?)

I'm not sure what you mean. Why couldn't there be a function of the same variable k outside the integral, as well as a function of k inside? Perhaps I didn't write it down clearly. My expression is

[tex] \int d^3x \left( e^{-i \vec{k} \cdot \vec{x}} \int d^3k \left( e^{i \vec{k} \cdot \vec{x}} f(\vec{k}) \right) \right)[/tex]

This integral arose in a QFT problem I was doing. Basically there's a Fourier expansion for a function (the integral over k) and I'm transforming that back (but with a slightly different transformation).
 
perhaps I should have been more specific …

how you could you possibly start with the same k both outside an integral and as the dummy variable of integration inside it? :wink:
 
tiny-tim said:
perhaps I should have been more specific …

how you could you possibly start with the same k both outside an integral and as the dummy variable of integration inside it? :wink:

I still don't understand. Perhaps you're tripping over some mathematical sloppiness I'm not aware of.
 
I don't understand what makes you think that they were the same k in the first place …
NanakiXIII said:
One now just needs to remember that the primed k is actually the same as the old k, but we don't want to integrate over it. Now the x-integral turns the exponential factor into a delta-function, so that we get (apart from some factors of 2π)
 
tiny-tim said:
I don't understand what makes you think that they were the same k in the first place …

Oh. I see what you mean now. I had forgotten what I was integrating over (i.e. that it's not an indefinite integral). I see why you reacted so confused. Thanks for helping me see that. It was just a sloppiness, but one I forgot to keep track of.

This makes things even easier. At least now I'm convinced it's also correct. You didn't see any error in the rest, right?
 
No, seems fine! :smile:
 
Thanks for the help!
 

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