- #1
ericm1234
- 73
- 2
I have previously taken PDE's and ODE's. I understand obtaining the equation y''+lambda*y=0 (lambda then giving the eigenvalues). But I've encountered now the use of eigenfunction expansion for an ODE; and what I don't understand, is that in solving it they're making some assumption that y''+y=0 (the homogeneous problem) is actually y''+lambda*y=0, hence where the 'eigenfunctions for the homogeneous problem' are coming from.
Or are they NOT making this assumption? I am confused. Please help
Or are they NOT making this assumption? I am confused. Please help