Newton's 2nd law and Lorentz Force

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of Newton's second law and the Lorentz force equation in a physics context. Participants are exploring the relationship between force, mass, acceleration, and electric and magnetic fields.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to combine the Lorentz force equation with Newton's second law, questioning how to manipulate the equations and what substitutions are appropriate. There is discussion about the implications of the dot product and the properties of vector operations, particularly regarding perpendicularity.

Discussion Status

The conversation includes attempts to clarify vector relationships and the implications of constant speed on the work done by electric fields. Some participants are providing guidance on mathematical manipulations, while others are exploring the conceptual implications of their findings.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of a homework exercise, focusing on the relationship between acceleration, velocity, and electric fields, particularly in the context of constant speed and the work done by forces.

Dvsdvs
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ok, the lorentz force equation is F=q(E+v x B) and Newton's 2nd law is F=ma. I need to combine the two to show that ma.v=qE.V
I don't really know what to do first here...
i can see the simple substitution so that ma=qE+q(v x B) but beyond that...do u change the a to dv/dt. Any type of help to get me started will work.
 
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Dvsdvs said:
i can see the simple substitution so that ma=qE+q(v x B) but beyond that...
Good. Now just multiply each side by v (scalar multiplication, aka dot product).
 
nice. thank you very much. How do i show that v.(qE+(v x B)=qE.v in other words why is it that v.(V x b)=0. i know this is probably an elementary question but I am not too good at working with vectors.
 
The cross product of two vectors is always perpendicular to those vectors. So [tex]\vec{v}\times\vec{B}[/tex] is perpendicular to v (and to B). What does that tell you about the dot product [tex]\vec{v}\cdot(\vec{v}\times\vec{B})[/tex] (and why)?
 
oh wooow i feel so stupid really. yeah so dot product = 0 b/c they are perpendicular...Also the overall question for the exercise was to show that if speed is constant. then show that E does now work along the path of the particle.

For this it means that //v(t)// is constant which is to say that
v(t).a=0 by a proposition I proved in a previous prob. Does this mean that
ma.v=0=qE.v?? and if it does this shows that E is perpendicular to v. Being perpendicular to direction of motion, is it sound to say that it does no useful work along path of particle? This is the last part of this whole thing thank you very much for help so far!
 
Well, if you've shown that v.a = 0, and that v.a is proportional to E.v, then that would mean that E.v = 0 ... that's just simple math ;-)
 
Dvsdvs said:
For this it means that //v(t)// is constant which is to say that
v(t).a=0 by a proposition I proved in a previous prob. Does this mean that
ma.v=0=qE.v??
Yep.
and if it does this shows that E is perpendicular to v.
Yep.
Being perpendicular to direction of motion, is it sound to say that it does no useful work along path of particle?
Yep again.
 

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