Newton's 2nd law and Lorentz Force

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on combining Newton's 2nd law, represented as F=ma, with the Lorentz force equation, F=q(E+v x B). Participants explore the implications of substituting acceleration and the dot product of vectors. It is established that if the velocity of a particle is constant, then the electric field E does no work along the particle's path, as E is perpendicular to the direction of motion. The conclusion emphasizes that the dot product of velocity and the cross product of velocity and magnetic field is zero due to their perpendicular nature.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Newton's 2nd law (F=ma)
  • Familiarity with the Lorentz force equation (F=q(E+v x B))
  • Basic knowledge of vector operations, particularly dot and cross products
  • Concept of work done by a force in physics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of constant velocity in the context of electric and magnetic fields
  • Learn more about vector calculus, specifically dot and cross products
  • Explore the concept of work done by forces in physics
  • Investigate the relationship between electric fields and motion in charged particles
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in physics, particularly those studying electromagnetism, vector calculus, and classical mechanics.

Dvsdvs
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ok, the lorentz force equation is F=q(E+v x B) and Newton's 2nd law is F=ma. I need to combine the two to show that ma.v=qE.V
I don't really know what to do first here...
i can see the simple substitution so that ma=qE+q(v x B) but beyond that...do u change the a to dv/dt. Any type of help to get me started will work.
 
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Dvsdvs said:
i can see the simple substitution so that ma=qE+q(v x B) but beyond that...
Good. Now just multiply each side by v (scalar multiplication, aka dot product).
 
nice. thank you very much. How do i show that v.(qE+(v x B)=qE.v in other words why is it that v.(V x b)=0. i know this is probably an elementary question but I am not too good at working with vectors.
 
The cross product of two vectors is always perpendicular to those vectors. So \vec{v}\times\vec{B} is perpendicular to v (and to B). What does that tell you about the dot product \vec{v}\cdot(\vec{v}\times\vec{B}) (and why)?
 
oh wooow i feel so stupid really. yeah so dot product = 0 b/c they are perpendicular...Also the overall question for the exercise was to show that if speed is constant. then show that E does now work along the path of the particle.

For this it means that //v(t)// is constant which is to say that
v(t).a=0 by a proposition I proved in a previous prob. Does this mean that
ma.v=0=qE.v?? and if it does this shows that E is perpendicular to v. Being perpendicular to direction of motion, is it sound to say that it does no useful work along path of particle? This is the last part of this whole thing thank you very much for help so far!
 
Well, if you've shown that v.a = 0, and that v.a is proportional to E.v, then that would mean that E.v = 0 ... that's just simple math ;-)
 
Dvsdvs said:
For this it means that //v(t)// is constant which is to say that
v(t).a=0 by a proposition I proved in a previous prob. Does this mean that
ma.v=0=qE.v??
Yep.
and if it does this shows that E is perpendicular to v.
Yep.
Being perpendicular to direction of motion, is it sound to say that it does no useful work along path of particle?
Yep again.
 

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