paulimerci said:
Thank you for counting on me! When the bicyclist starts to petal, the rear of the wheel pushes the bicycle backwards as it moves forward, and the direction of rolling friction changes as the bicycle advances. This friction pushes the bike to move forward. The rolling friction is assumed to be zero in this situation, although it is not. Am I correct? What will the front wheel's rolling resistance be. Does it experience rolling resistance in the same plane as the back end?
It may not be worth your while spending too much time worrying about this problem. The issue isn't rolling friction. We can assume that resisting forces (other than gravity) are negligible here.
After some thought, I think that the problem is not just badly phrased but wrong. There's no doubt about the net force on the cyclist. But, that's not necessarily related to any active force that the cyclist provides. Here's my analysis.
Let's consider a modern bicycle where the rider is seated and manifestly pushes
forward on the pedals with force ##F_1##. There is then an equal and opposite reaction force from the pedals.
There is also a force from the seat of the bicycle forward on the rider (##F_2##) and an equal and opposite reaction from the rider's back. The unbalanced force is ##F_2 - F_1## and this is what accelerates the rider and what has been calculated here. Whereas, by no stretch of the imagination is that the force that the rider
provides. The rider provides the force ##F_1##. And, clearly, this force depends on the gearing mechanism of the bicycle. And, if you ride a mountain bike, you see how much that force (##F_1##) can vary across the gears.
You might argue that the rider is ultimately responsible for the net force ##F_2 - F_1##, but there is also a third force (##F_3##) from the ground to the bicycle. And, ultimately, the rider is responsible for that force as well.
You might also argue that ##F_2 - F_1## is the net force provided by the rider to the bicycle. And that "provides" includes passive, reaction forces. But, then, the same argument would apply to a motorist being accelerated by a car seat. There is an equal and opposite force provided by the motorist's back on the car. So, you would have to say that the motorist is "providing" the force in that case too.