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No Laplace Transform? What can be said about the function?

  1. Nov 9, 2009 #1
    Hi,

    We know that if a function does not have a Fourier transform, then it does not have finite energy. Is there an equivalent intuition associated with a function that does not have a Laplace transform?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 9, 2009 #2

    berkeman

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    Staff: Mentor

    Could you provide a link to your first assertion please?
     
  4. Nov 10, 2009 #3
    Alright, I think I got confused with something to do with Fourier Series (not transform) and Dirichlet conditions. Nevermind that first statement. The question is, what can be said about the function, if it does not have a Laplace transform?
     
  5. Nov 10, 2009 #4
    Laplace Transform is just a means engineers convert representations in time domain into frequency domains in engineering. Things in time domain do happen in frequency domain. as F= 1/T. Convolution (which is complicated) in the time domain means multiplication in the frequency domain - which helps things out.

    Not too sure there is any existance between if a function has no laplace means other theory.
     
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